An account represents a grouping of financial transactions that are tracked and reported together with a single balance. Examples of account codes (types) are Patient billing accounts (collection of charges), Cost centers; Cash.

An account for collecting charges, reversals, adjustments and payments, including deductibles, copayments, coinsurance (financial transactions) credited or debited to the account receivable account for a patient's encounter.

Description: Types of advance payment to be made on a plastic card usually issued by a financial institution used of purchasing services and/or products.

An account representing charges and credits (financial transactions) for a patient's encounter.

Includes coded responses that will occur as a result of the adjudication of an electronic invoice at a summary level and provides guidance on interpretation of the referenced adjudication results.

Catagorization of grouping criteria for the associated transactions and/or summary (totals, subtotals).

Transaction counts and value totals by Contract Identifier.

Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar day within the date range specified.

Transaction counts and value totals by service location (e.g clinic).

Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar month within the date range specified.

Transaction counts and value totals for the date range specified.

Transaction counts and value totals by Provider Identifier.

Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar week within the date range specified.

Transaction counts and value totals for each calendar year within the date range specified.

The invoice element has been accepted for payment but one or more adjustment(s) have been made to one or more invoice element line items (component charges).

Also includes the concept 'Adjudicate as zero' and items not covered under a particular Policy.

Invoice element can be reversed (nullified).

Recommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).

The invoice element has been accepted for payment but one or more adjustment(s) have been made to one or more invoice element line items (component charges) without changing the amount.

Invoice element can be reversed (nullified).

Recommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).

The invoice element has passed through the adjudication process but payment is refused due to one or more reasons.

Includes items such as patient not covered, or invoice element is not constructed according to payer rules (e.g. 'invoice submitted too late').

If one invoice element line item in the invoice element structure is rejected, the remaining line items may not be adjudicated and the complete group is treated as rejected.

A refused invoice element can be forwarded to the next payer (for Coordination of Benefits) or modified and resubmitted to refusing payer.

Invoice element cannot be reversed (nullified) as there is nothing to reverse.

Recommend that the invoice element is not saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).

The invoice element was/will be paid exactly as submitted, without financial adjustment(s).

If the dollar amount stays the same, but the billing codes have been amended or financial adjustments have been applied through the adjudication process, the invoice element is treated as "Adjudicated with Adjustment".

If information items are included in the adjudication results that do not affect the monetary amounts paid, then this is still Adjudicated as Submitted (e.g. 'reached Plan Maximum on this Claim').

Invoice element can be reversed (nullified).

Recommend that the invoice element is saved for DUR (Drug Utilization Reporting).

Actions to be carried out by the recipient of the Adjudication Result information.

The adjudication result associated is to be displayed to the receiver of the adjudication result.

The adjudication result associated is to be printed on the specified form, which is then provided to the covered party.

**Definition:**An identifying modifier code for healthcare interventions or procedures.

**Description:**CPT modifier codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition.

**Description:**HCPCS Level II (HCFA-assigned) and Carrier-assigned (Level III) modifiers are reported in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition and in the Medicare Bulletin.

The type of provision(s) made for reimbursing for the deliver of healthcare services and/or goods provided by a Provider, over a specified period.

A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a lump sum to provide a prescribed group (volume) of services to a single patient which occur over a period of time. Services included in the block may vary.

This billing arrangement is also known as Program of Care for some specific Payors and Program Fees for other Payors.

A billing arrangement where the payment made to a Provider is determined by analyzing one or more demographic attributes about the persons/patients who are enrolled with the Provider (in their practice).

A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a lump sum to provide a particular volume of one or more interventions/procedures or groups of interventions/procedures.

A billing arrangement where a Provider charges for non-clinical items. This includes interest in arrears, mileage, etc. Clinical content is not included in Invoices submitted with this type of billing arrangement.

A billing arrangement where funding is based on a list of individuals registered as patients of the Provider.

A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a sum to provide a group (volume) of interventions/procedures to one or more patients within a defined period of time, typically on the same date. Interventions/procedures included in the session may vary.

A billing arrangement where a Provider charges a separate fee for each intervention/procedure/event or product.

Fee for Service is used when an individual intervention/procedure/event is used for billing purposes. In other words, fees are associated with the intervention/procedure/event. For example, a specific CCI (Canadian Classification of Interventions) code has an associated fee and is used for billing purposes.

A first fill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.) and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets)

A first fill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets) and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).

A fill where a small portion is provided to allow for determination of the therapy effectiveness and patient tolerance and also where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).

Type of bounded ROI.

A fully specified bounded Region of Interest (ROI) delineates a ROI in which only those dimensions participate that are specified by boundary criteria, whereas all other dimensions are excluded. For example a ROI to mark an episode of "ST elevation" in a subset of the EKG leads V2, V3, and V4 would include 4 boundaries, one each for time, V2, V3, and V4.

A partially specified bounded Region of Interest (ROI) specifies a ROI in which at least all values in the dimensions specified by the boundary criteria participate. For example, if an episode of ventricular fibrillations (VFib) is observed, it usually doesn't make sense to exclude any EKG leads from the observation and the partially specified ROI would contain only one boundary for time indicating the time interval where VFib was observed.

**Description:**The type and scope of responsibility taken-on by the performer of the Act for a specific subject of care.

**Description:**The type and scope of legal and/or professional responsibility taken-on by the performer of the Act for a specific subject of care as described by a credentialing agency, i.e. government or non-government agency. Failure in executing this Act may result in loss of credential to the person or organization who participates as performer of the Act. Excludes employment agreements.

**Example:**Hospital license; physician license; clinic accreditation.

**Description:**The type and scope of legal and/or professional responsibility taken-on by the performer of the Act for a specific subject of care as described by an agency for credentialing individuals.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on for specialty care as defined by the respective Specialty Board.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken-on for physician care of a patient as defined by a governmental licensing agency.

**Description:**The type and scope of legal and/or professional responsibility taken-on by the performer of the Act for a specific subject of care as described by an agency for credentialing programs within organizations.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the respective accreditation agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the respective accreditation agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the respective accreditation agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the respective accreditation agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the respective accreditation agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the respective accreditation agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the respective accreditation agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the respective accreditation agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

Description:.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

**Description:**Scope of responsibility taken on by an organization for care of a patient as defined by the disease management certification agency.

Domain provides codes that qualify the ActEncounterClass (ENC)

A comprehensive term for health care provided in a healthcare facility (e.g. a practitioneraTMs office, clinic setting, or hospital) on a nonresident basis. The term ambulatory usually implies that the patient has come to the location and is not assigned to a bed. Sometimes referred to as an outpatient encounter.

A patient encounter that takes place at a dedicated healthcare service delivery location where the patient receives immediate evaluation and treatment, provided until the patient can be discharged or responsibility for the patient's care is transferred elsewhere (for example, the patient could be admitted as an inpatient or transferred to another facility.)

A patient encounter that takes place both outside a dedicated service delivery location and outside a patient's residence. Example locations might include an accident site and at a supermarket.

Healthcare encounter that takes place in the residence of the patient or a designee

A patient encounter where a patient is admitted by a hospital or equivalent facility, assigned to a location where patients generally stay at least overnight and provided with room, board, and continuous nursing service.

An acute inpatient encounter.

Any category of inpatient encounter except 'acute'

An encounter where the patient usually will start in different encounter, such as one in the emergency department (EMER) but then transition to this type of encounter because they require a significant period of treatment and monitoring to determine whether or not their condition warrants an inpatient admission or discharge. In the majority of cases the decision about admission or discharge will occur within a time period determined by local, regional or national regulation, often between 24 and 48 hours.

A patient encounter where patient is scheduled or planned to receive service delivery in the future, and the patient is given a pre-admission account number. When the patient comes back for subsequent service, the pre-admission encounter is selected and is encapsulated into the service registration, and a new account number is generated.

Usage Note: This is intended to be used in advance of encounter types such as ambulatory, inpatient encounter, virtual, etc.

An encounter where the patient is admitted to a health care facility for a predetermined length of time, usually less than 24 hours.

A patient encounter where the patient and the practitioner(s) are not in the same physical location. Examples include telephone conference, email exchange, robotic surgery, and televideo conference.

General category of medical service provided to the patient during their encounter.

Provision of Alternate Level of Care to a patient in an acute bed. Patient is waiting for placement in a long-term care facility and is unable to return home.

Provision of diagnosis and treatment of diseases and disorders affecting the heart

Provision of recurring care for chronic illness.

Provision of treatment for oral health and/or dental surgery.

Provision of treatment for drug abuse.

General care performed by a general practitioner or family doctor as a responsible provider for a patient.

Provision of diagnostic and/or therapeutic treatment.

Provision of care of women during pregnancy, childbirth and immediate postpartum period. Also known as Maternity.

Provision of treatment and/or diagnosis related to tumors and/or cancer.

Provision of care for patients who are living or dying from an advanced illness.

Provision of diagnosis and treatment of diseases and disorders affecting children.

Pharmaceutical care performed by a pharmacist.

Provision of treatment for physical injury.

Provision of treatment of psychiatric disorder relating to mental illness.

Provision of surgical treatment.

Description: Coded types of attachments included to support a healthcare claim.

Description: Automobile Information Attachment

Description: Document Attachment

Description: Health Record Attachment

Description: Image Attachment

Description: Lab Results Attachment

Description: Digital Model Attachment

Description: Work Injury related additional Information Attachment

Description: Digital X-Ray Attachment

Definition: The type of consent directive, e.g., to consent or dissent to collect, access, or use in specific ways within an EHRS or for health information exchange; or to disclose health information for purposes such as research.

Definition: Consent to have healthcare information collected in an electronic health record. This entails that the information may be used in analysis, modified, updated.

Definition: Consent to have collected healthcare information disclosed.

Definition: Consent to access healthcare information.

Definition: Consent to access or "read" only, which entails that the information is not to be copied, screen printed, saved, emailed, stored, re-disclosed or altered in any way. This level ensures that data which is masked or to which access is restricted will not be.

Example: Opened and then emailed or screen printed for use outside of the consent directive purpose.

Definition: Consent to access and save only, which entails that access to the saved copy will remain locked.

Definition: Information re-disclosed without the patient's consent.

Definition: Consent to have healthcare information in an electronic health record accessed for research purposes.

Definition: Consent to have de-identified healthcare information in an electronic health record that is accessed for research purposes, but without consent to re-identify the information under any circumstance.

Definition: Consent to have de-identified healthcare information in an electronic health record that is accessed for research purposes re-identified under specific circumstances outlined in the consent.

Example:: Where there is a need to inform the subject of potential health issues.

Constrains the ActCode to the domain of Container Registration

Used by one system to inform another that it has received a container.

Used by one system to inform another that the container is in position for specimen transfer (e.g., container removal from track, pipetting, etc.).

Used by one system to inform another that the container has been released from that system.

Used by one system to inform another that the container did not arrive at its next expected location.

Used by one system to inform another that the specific container is being processed by the equipment. It is useful as a response to a query about Container Status, when the specific step of the process is not relevant.

Status is used by one system to inform another that the processing has been completed, but the container has not been released from that system.

Used by one system to inform another that the container is no longer available within the scope of the system (e.g., tube broken or discarded).

An observation form that determines parameters or attributes of an Act. Examples are the settings of a ventilator machine as parameters of a ventilator treatment act; the controls on dillution factors of a chemical analyzer as a parameter of a laboratory observation act; the settings of a physiologic measurement assembly (e.g., time skew) or the position of the body while measuring blood pressure.

Control variables are forms of observations because just as with clinical observations, the Observation.code determines the parameter and the Observation.value assigns the value. While control variables sometimes can be observed (by noting the control settings or an actually measured feedback loop) they are not primary observations, in the sense that a control variable without a primary act is of no use (e.g., it makes no sense to record a blood pressure position without recording a blood pressure, whereas it does make sense to record a systolic blood pressure without a diastolic blood pressure).

Specifies whether or not automatic repeat testing is to be initiated on specimens.

A baseline value for the measured test that is inherently contained in the diluent. In the calculation of the actual result for the measured test, this baseline value is normally considered.

Specifies whether or not further testing may be automatically or manually initiated on specimens.

Response to an insurance coverage eligibility query or authorization request.

Indication of authorization for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s). If authorization is approved, funds are set aside.

Authorization approved and funds have been set aside to pay for specified healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) within defined criteria for the authorization.

Authorization for specified healthcare service(s) and/or product(s) denied.

Indication of eligibility coverage for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).

Insurance coverage is in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s).

Insurance coverage is not in effect for healthcare service(s) and/or product(s). May optionally include reasons for the ineligibility.

Criteria that are applicable to the authorized coverage.

Maximum amount paid or maximum number of services/products covered; or maximum amount or number covered during a specified time period under the policy or program.

Codes representing the time period during which coverage is available; or financial participation requirements are in effect.

Definition: Maximum amount paid by payer or covered party; or maximum number of services or products covered under the policy or program during a covered party's lifetime.

Maximum net amount that will be covered for the product or service specified.

Definition: Maximum amount paid by payer or covered party; or maximum number of services/products covered under the policy or program by time period specified by the effective time on the act.

Maximum unit price that will be covered for the authorized product or service.

Maximum number of items that will be covered of the product or service specified.

Definition: Codes representing the maximum coverate or financial participation requirements.

Codes representing the types of covered parties that may receive covered benefits under a policy or program.

Codes representing the level of coverage provided under the policy or program in terms of the types of entities that may play covered parties based on their personal relationships or employment status.

Definition: Set of codes indicating the type of insurance policy or program that pays for the cost of benefits provided to covered parties.

Set of codes indicating the type of insurance policy or other source of funds to cover healthcare costs.

Private insurance policy that provides coverage in addition to other policies (e.g. in addition to a Public Healthcare insurance policy).

Insurance policy that provides for an allotment of funds replenished on a periodic (e.g. annual) basis. The use of the funds under this policy is at the discretion of the covered party.

Insurance policy for injuries sustained in an automobile accident. Will also typically covered non-named parties to the policy, such as pedestrians and passengers.

Definition: An automobile insurance policy under which the insurance company will cover the cost of damages to an automobile owned by the named insured that are caused by accident or intentionally by another party.

Definition: An automobile insurance policy under which the insurance company will indemnify a loss for which another motorist is liable if that motorist is unable to pay because he or she is uninsured. Coverage under the policy applies to bodily injury damages only. Injuries to the covered party caused by a hit-and-run driver are also covered.

Insurance policy funded by a public health system such as a provincial or national health plan. Examples include BC MSP (British Columbia Medical Services Plan) OHIP (Ontario Health Insurance Plan), NHS (National Health Service).

Definition: A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for dental care to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria.

Definition: A public or government health program that administers and funds coverage for health and social services to assist program eligible who meet financial and health status criteria related to a particular disease.

Example: Reproductive health, sexually transmitted disease, and end renal disease programs.

Definition: A program that provides low-income, uninsured, and underserved women access to timely, high-quality screening and diagnostic services, to detect breast and cervical cancer at the earliest stages.

Example: To improve women's access to screening for breast and cervical cancers, Congress passed the Breast and Cervical Cancer Mortality Prevention Act of 1990, which guided CDC in creating the National Breast and Cervical Cancer Early Detection Program (NBCCEDP), which provides access to critical breast and cervical cancer screening services for underserved women in the United States. An estimated 7 to 10% of U.S. women of screening age are eligible to receive NBCCEDP services. Federal guidelines establish an eligibility baseline to direct services to uninsured and underinsured women at or below 250% of federal poverty level; ages 18 to 64 for cervical screening; ages 40 to 64 for breast screening.

Definition: A public or government program that administers publicly funded coverage of kidney dialysis and kidney transplant services.

Example: In the U.S., the Medicare End-stage Renal Disease program (ESRD), the National Kidney Foundation (NKF) American Kidney Fund (AKF) The Organ Transplant Fund.

Definition: Government administered and funded HIV-AIDS program for beneficiaries meeting financial and health status criteria. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. Payer responsibilities for administering the program may be delegated to contractors.

Example: In the U.S., the Ryan White program, which is administered by the Health Resources and Services Administration.

Definition: Government administered and funded mental health program for beneficiaries meeting financial and mental health status criteria. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. Payer responsibilities for administering the program may be delegated to contractors.

Example: In the U.S., states receive funding for substance use programs from the Substance Abuse Mental Health Administration (SAMHSA).

Definition: Government administered and funded program to support provision of care to underserved populations through safety net clinics.

Example: In the U.S., safety net providers such as federally qualified health centers (FQHC) receive funding under PHSA Section 330 grants administered by the Health Resources and Services Administration.

Definition: Government administered and funded substance use program for beneficiaries meeting financial, substance use behavior, and health status criteria. Beneficiaries may be required to enroll as a result of legal proceedings. Administration, funding levels, eligibility criteria, covered benefits, provider types, and financial participation are typically set by a regulatory process. Payer responsibilities for administering the program may be delegated to contractors.

Example: In the U.S., states receive funding for substance use programs from the Substance Abuse Mental Health Administration (SAMHSA).

Definition: A government health program that provides coverage for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.

Definition: A government health program that provides coverage through managed care contracts for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.

Discussion: The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized managed care program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.

Definition: A government health program that provides coverage for health services to persons meeting eligibility criteria for a supplemental health policy or program such as income, location of residence, access to other coverages, health condition, and age, the cost of which is to some extent subsidized by public funds.

Example: Supplemental health coverage program may cover the cost of a health program or policy financial participations, such as the copays and the premiums, and may provide coverage for services in addition to those covered under the supplemented health program or policy. In the U.S., Medicaid programs may pay the premium for a covered party who is also covered under the Medicare program or a private health policy.

Discussion: The structure and business processes for underwriting and administering a subsidized supplemental retiree health program is further specified by the Underwriter and Payer Role.class and Role.code.

Insurance policy for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment.

Definition: Set of codes indicating the type of insurance policy. Insurance, in law and economics, is a form of risk management primarily used to hedge against the risk of potential financial loss. Insurance is defined as the equitable transfer of the risk of a potential loss, from one entity to another, in exchange for a premium and duty of care. A policy holder is an individual or an organization enters into a contract with an underwriter which stipulates that, in exchange for payment of a sum of money (a premium), one or more covered parties (insureds) is guaranteed compensation for losses resulting from certain perils under specified conditions. The underwriter analyzes the risk of loss, makes a decision as to whether the risk is insurable, and prices the premium accordingly. A policy provides benefits that indemnify or cover the cost of a loss incurred by a covered party, and may include coverage for services required to remediate a loss. An insurance policy contains pertinent facts about the policy holder, the insurance coverage, the covered parties, and the insurer. A policy may include exemptions and provisions specifying the extent to which the indemnification clause cannot be enforced for intentional tortious conduct of a covered party, e.g., whether the covered parties are jointly or severably insured.

Discussion: In contrast to programs, an insurance policy has one or more policy holders, who own the policy. The policy holder may be the covered party, a relative of the covered party, a partnership, or a corporation, e.g., an employer. A subscriber of a self-insured health insurance policy is a policy holder. A subscriber of an employer sponsored health insurance policy is holds a certificate of coverage, but is not a policy holder; the policy holder is the employer. See CoveredRoleType.

Definition: Set of codes indicating the type of health insurance policy that covers health services provided to covered parties. A health insurance policy is a written contract for insurance between the insurance company and the policyholder, and contains pertinent facts about the policy owner (the policy holder), the health insurance coverage, the insured subscribers and dependents, and the insurer. Health insurance is typically administered in accordance with a plan, which specifies (1) the type of health services and health conditions that will be covered under what circumstances (e.g., exclusion of a pre-existing condition, service must be deemed medically necessary; service must not be experimental; service must provided in accordance with a protocol; drug must be on a formulary; service must be prior authorized; or be a referral from a primary care provider); (2) the type and affiliation of providers (e.g., only allopathic physicians, only in network, only providers employed by an HMO); (3) financial participations required of covered parties (e.g., co-pays, coinsurance, deductibles, out-of-pocket); and (4) the manner in which services will be paid (e.g., under indemnity or fee-for-service health plans, the covered party typically pays out-of-pocket and then file a claim for reimbursement, while health plans that have contractual relationships with providers, i.e., network providers, typically do not allow the providers to bill the covered party for the cost of the service until after filing a claim with the payer and receiving reimbursement).

Definition: A health insurance policy that that covers benefits for dental services.

Definition: A health insurance policy that covers benefits for healthcare services provided for named conditions under the policy, e.g., cancer, diabetes, or HIV-AIDS.

Definition: A health insurance policy that covers benefits for prescription drugs, pharmaceuticals, and supplies.

Definition: A health insurance policy that covers healthcare benefits by protecting covered parties from medical expenses arising from health conditions, sickness, or accidental injury as well as preventive care. Health insurance policies explicitly exclude coverage for losses insured under a disability policy, workers' compensation program, liability insurance (including automobile insurance); or for medical expenses, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for limited dental or vision benefits when these are provided under a separate policy.

Discussion: Health insurance policies are offered by health insurance plans that typically reimburse providers for covered services on a fee-for-service basis, that is, a fee that is the allowable amount that a provider may charge. This is in contrast to managed care plans, which typically prepay providers a per-member/per-month amount or capitation as reimbursement for all covered services rendered. Health insurance plans include indemnity and healthcare services plans.

Definition: An insurance policy that covers benefits for long-term care services people need when they no longer can care for themselves. This may be due to an accident, disability, prolonged illness or the simple process of aging. Long-term care services assist with activities of daily living including:

• Help at home with day-to-day activities, such as cooking, cleaning, bathing and dressing
• Care in the community, such as in an adult day care facility
• Supervised care provided in an assisted living facility
• Skilled care provided in a nursing home

Definition: Government mandated program providing coverage, disability income, and vocational rehabilitation for injuries sustained in the work place or in the course of employment. Employers may either self-fund the program, purchase commercial coverage, or pay a premium to a government entity that administers the program. Employees may be required to pay premiums toward the cost of coverage as well.

Managed care policies specifically exclude coverage for losses insured under a disability policy, workers' compensation program, liability insurance (including automobile insurance); or for medical expenses, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for limited dental or vision benefits when these are provided under a separate policy.

Discussion: Managed care policies are offered by managed care plans that contract with selected providers or health care organizations to provide comprehensive health care at a discount to covered parties and coordinate the financing and delivery of health care. Managed care uses medical protocols and procedures agreed on by the medical profession to be cost effective, also known as medical practice guidelines. Providers are typically reimbursed for covered services by a capitated amount on a per member per month basis that may reflect difference in the health status and level of services anticipated to be needed by the member.

Definition: A policy for a health plan that has features of both an HMO and a FFS plan. Like an HMO, a POS plan encourages the use its HMO network to maintain discounted fees with participating providers, but recognizes that sometimes covered parties want to choose their own provider. The POS plan allows a covered party to use providers who are not part of the HMO network (non-participating providers). However, there is a greater cost associated with choosing these non-network providers. A covered party will usually pay deductibles and coinsurances that are substantially higher than the payments when he or she uses a plan provider. Use of non-participating providers often requires the covered party to pay the provider directly and then to file a claim for reimbursement, like in an FFS plan.

Definition: A policy for a health plan that provides coverage for health care only through contracted or employed physicians and hospitals located in particular geographic or service areas. HMOs emphasize prevention and early detection of illness. Eligibility to enroll in an HMO is determined by where a covered party lives or works.

Definition: A network-based, managed care plan that allows a covered party to choose any health care provider. However, if care is received from a "preferred" (participating in-network) provider, there are generally higher benefit coverage and lower deductibles.

Definition: A health insurance policy that covers benefits for mental health services and prescriptions.

Definition: A health insurance policy that covers benefits for substance use services.

Definition: Set of codes for a policy that provides coverage for health care expenses arising from vision services.

A health insurance policy that covers benefits for vision care services, prescriptions, and products.

Definition: An insurance policy that provides a regular payment to compensate for income lost due to the covered party's inability to work because of illness or injury.

Definition: An insurance policy under a benefit plan run by an employer or employee organization for the purpose of providing benefits other than pension-related to employees and their families. Typically provides health-related benefits, benefits for disability, disease or unemployment, or day care and scholarship benefits, among others. An employer sponsored health policy includes coverage of health care expenses arising from sickness or accidental injury, coverage for on-site medical clinics or for dental or vision benefits, which are typically provided under a separate policy. Coverage excludes health care expenses covered by accident or disability, workers' compensation, liability or automobile insurance.

Definition: An insurance policy that covers qualified benefits under a Flexible Benefit plan such as group medical insurance, long and short term disability income insurance, group term life insurance for employees only up to $50,000 face amount, specified disease coverage such as a cancer policy, dental and/or vision insurance, hospital indemnity insurance, accidental death and dismemberment insurance, a medical expense reimbursement plan and a dependent care reimbursement plan.

Discussion: See UnderwriterRoleTypeCode flexible benefit plan which is defined as a benefit plan that allows employees to choose from several life, health, disability, dental, and other insurance plans according to their individual needs. Also known as cafeteria plans. Authorized under Section 125 of the Revenue Act of 1978.

Definition: A policy under which the insurer agrees to pay a sum of money upon the occurrence of the covered partys death. In return, the policyholder agrees to pay a stipulated amount called a premium at regular intervals. Life insurance indemnifies the beneficiary for the loss of the insurable interest that a beneficiary has in the life of a covered party. For persons related by blood, a substantial interest established through love and affection, and for all other persons, a lawful and substantial economic interest in having the life of the insured continue. An insurable interest is required when purchasing life insurance on another person. Specific exclusions are often written into the contract to limit the liability of the insurer; for example claims resulting from suicide or relating to war, riot and civil commotion.

*Discussion:*A life insurance policy may be used by the covered party as a source of health care coverage in the case of a viatical settlement, which is the sale of a life insurance policy by the policy owner, before the policy matures. Such a sale, at a price discounted from the face amount of the policy but usually in excess of the premiums paid or current cash surrender value, provides the seller an immediate cash settlement. Generally, viatical settlements involve insured individuals with a life expectancy of less than two years. In countries without state-subsidized healthcare and high healthcare costs (e.g. United States), this is a practical way to pay extremely high health insurance premiums that severely ill people face. Some people are also familiar with life settlements, which are similar transactions but involve insureds with longer life expectancies (two to fifteen years).

Definition: A policy that, after an initial premium or premiums, pays out a sum at pre-determined intervals.

For example, a policy holder may pay $10,000, and in return receive $150 each month until he dies; or $1,000 for each of 14 years or death benefits if he dies before the full term of the annuity has elapsed.

Definition: Life insurance under which the benefit is payable only if the insured dies during a specified period. If an insured dies during that period, the beneficiary receives the death payments. If the insured survives, the policy ends and the beneficiary receives nothing.

Definition: Life insurance under which the benefit is payable upon the insuredaTMs death or diagnosis of a terminal illness. If an insured dies during that period, the beneficiary receives the death payments. If the insured survives, the policy ends and the beneficiary receives nothing

Definition: A type of insurance that covers damage to or loss of the policyholderaTMs property by providing payments for damages to property damage or the injury or death of living subjects. The terms "casualty" and "liability" insurance are often used interchangeably. Both cover the policyholder's legal liability for damages caused to other persons and/or their property.

Definition: An agreement between two or more insurance companies by which the risk of loss is proportioned. Thus the risk of loss is spread and a disproportionately large loss under a single policy does not fall on one insurance company. Acceptance by an insurer, called a reinsurer, of all or part of the risk of loss of another insurance company.

Discussion: Reinsurance is a means by which an insurance company can protect itself against the risk of losses with other insurance companies. Individuals and corporations obtain insurance policies to provide protection for various risks (hurricanes, earthquakes, lawsuits, collisions, sickness and death, etc.). Reinsurers, in turn, provide insurance to insurance companies.

For example, an HMO may purchase a reinsurance policy to protect itself from losing too much money from one insured's particularly expensive health care costs. An insurance company issuing an automobile liability policy, with a limit of $100,000 per accident may reinsure its liability in excess of $10,000. A fire insurance company which issues a large policy generally reinsures a portion of the risk with one or several other companies. Also called risk control insurance or stop-loss insurance.

Definition:

1. A risk or part of a risk for which there is no normal insurance market available.
2. Insurance written by unauthorized insurance companies. Surplus lines insurance is insurance placed with unauthorized insurance companies through licensed surplus lines agents or brokers.

Definition: A form of insurance protection that provides additional liability coverage after the limits of your underlying policy are reached. An umbrella liability policy also protects you (the insured) in many situations not covered by the usual liability policies.

Definition: A set of codes used to indicate coverage under a program. A program is an organized structure for administering and funding coverage of a benefit package for covered parties meeting eligibility criteria, typically related to employment, health, financial, and demographic status. Programs are typically established or permitted by legislation with provisions for ongoing government oversight. Regulations may mandate the structure of the program, the manner in which it is funded and administered, covered benefits, provider types, eligibility criteria and financial participation. A government agency may be charged with implementing the program in accordance to the regulation. Risk of loss under a program in most cases would not meet what an underwriter would consider an insurable risk, i.e., the risk is not random in nature, not financially measurable, and likely requires subsidization with government funds.

Discussion: Programs do not have policy holders or subscribers. Program eligibles are enrolled based on health status, statutory eligibility, financial status, or age. Program eligibles who are covered parties under the program may be referred to as members, beneficiaries, eligibles, or recipients. Programs risk are underwritten by not for profit organizations such as governmental entities, and the beneficiaries typically do not pay for any or some portion of the cost of coverage. See CoveredPartyRoleType.

Definition: A program that covers the cost of services provided directly to a beneficiary who typically has no other source of coverage without charge.

Definition: A program that covers the cost of services provided to crime victims for injuries or losses related to the occurrence of a crime.

Definition: An employee assistance program is run by an employer or employee organization for the purpose of providing benefits and covering all or part of the cost for employees to receive counseling, referrals, and advice in dealing with stressful issues in their lives. These may include substance abuse, bereavement, marital problems, weight issues, or general wellness issues. The services are usually provided by a third-party, rather than the company itself, and the company receives only summary statistical data from the service provider. Employee's names and services received are kept confidential.

Definition: A set of codes used to indicate a government program that is an organized structure for administering and funding coverage of a benefit package for covered parties meeting eligibility criteria, typically related to employment, health and financial status. Government programs are established or permitted by legislation with provisions for ongoing government oversight. Regulation mandates the structure of the program, the manner in which it is funded and administered, covered benefits, provider types, eligibility criteria and financial participation. A government agency is charged with implementing the program in accordance to the regulation

Example: Federal employee health benefit program in the U.S.

Definition: A government program that provides health coverage to individuals who are considered medically uninsurable or high risk, and who have been denied health insurance due to a serious health condition. In certain cases, it also applies to those who have been quoted very high premiums a" again, due to a serious health condition. The pool charges premiums for coverage. Because the pool covers high-risk people, it incurs a higher level of claims than premiums can cover. The insurance industry pays into the pool to make up the difference and help it remain viable.

Definition: Services provided directly and through contracted and operated indigenous peoples health programs.

Example: Indian Health Service in the U.S.

Definition: A government program that provides coverage for health services to military personnel, retirees, and dependents. A covered party who is a subscriber can choose from among Fee-for-Service (FFS) plans, and their Preferred Provider Organizations (PPO), or Plans offering a Point of Service (POS) Product, or Health Maintenance Organizations.

Example: In the U.S., TRICARE, CHAMPUS.

Definition: A government mandated program with specific eligibility requirements based on premium contributions made during employment, length of employment, age, and employment status, e.g., being retired, disabled, or a dependent of a covered party under this program. Benefits typically include ambulatory, inpatient, and long-term care, such as hospice care, home health care and respite care.

Definition: A social service program funded by a public or governmental entity.

Example: Programs providing habilitation, food, lodging, medicine, transportation, equipment, devices, products, education, training, counseling, alteration of living or work space, and other resources to persons meeting eligibility criteria.

Definition: Services provided directly and through contracted and operated veteran health programs.

Codes dealing with the management of Detected Issue observations

Codes dealing with the management of Detected Issue observations for the administrative and patient administrative acts domains.

Used to temporarily override normal authorization rules to gain access to data in a case of emergency. Use of this override code will typically be monitored, and a procedure to verify its proper use may be triggered when used.

Description: Indicates that the permissions have been externally verified and the request should be processed.

Confirmed drug therapy appropriate

Consulted other supplier/pharmacy, therapy confirmed

Assessed patient, therapy is appropriate

Description: The patient has the appropriate indication or diagnosis for the action to be taken.

Description: It has been confirmed that the appropriate pre-requisite therapy has been tried.

Patient gave adequate explanation

Consulted other supply source, therapy still appropriate

Consulted prescriber, therapy confirmed

Consulted prescriber and recommended change, prescriber declined

Concurrent therapy triggering alert is no longer on-going or planned

Confirmed supply action appropriate

Patient's existing supply was lost/wasted

Supply date is due to patient vacation

Supply date is intended to carry patient over weekend

Supply is intended for use during a leave of absence from an institution.

Description: Supply is different than expected as an additional quantity has been supplied in a separate dispense.

Order is performed as issued, but other action taken to mitigate potential adverse effects

Provided education or training to the patient on appropriate therapy use

Instituted an additional therapy to mitigate potential negative effects

Suspended existing therapy that triggered interaction for the duration of this therapy

Aborted existing therapy that triggered interaction.

Arranged to monitor patient for adverse effects

Codes dealing with the management of Detected Issue observations for the financial acts domain.

Concepts that identify the type or nature of exposure interaction. Examples include "household", "care giver", "intimate partner", "common space", "common substance", etc. to further describe the nature of interaction.

Description: Exposure participants' interaction occurred in a child care setting

Description: An interaction where the exposure participants traveled in/on the same vehicle (not necessarily concurrently, e.g. both are passengers of the same plane, but on different flights of that plane).

Description: Exposure participants' interaction occurred during the course of health care delivery or in a health care delivery setting, but did not involve the direct provision of care (e.g. a janitor cleaning a patient's hospital room).

Description: Exposure interaction occurred in context of one providing care for the other, i.e. a babysitter providing care for a child, a home-care aide providing assistance to a paraplegic.

Description: Exposure participants' interaction occurred when both were patients being treated in the same (acute) health care delivery facility.

Description: Exposure participants' interaction occurred when one visited the other who was a patient being treated in a health care delivery facility.

Description: Exposure interaction occurred in context of domestic interaction, i.e. both participants reside in the same household.

Description: Exposure participants' interaction occurred in the course of one or both participants being incarcerated at a correctional facility

Description: Exposure interaction was intimate, i.e. participants are intimate companions (e.g. spouses, domestic partners).

Description: Exposure participants' interaction occurred in the course of one or both participants being resident at a long term care facility (second participant may be a visitor, worker, resident or a physical place or object within the facility).

Description: An interaction where the exposure participants were both present in the same location/place/space.

Description: Exposure participants' interaction occurred during the course of health care delivery by a provider (e.g. a physician treating a patient in her office).

Description: Exposure participants' interaction occurred in an academic setting (e.g., participants are fellow students, or student and teacher).

Description: An interaction where the exposure participants are social associates or members of the same extended family

Description: An interaction where the exposure participants shared or co-used a common substance (e.g. drugs, needles, or common food item).

Description: An interaction where the exposure participants traveled together in/on the same vehicle/trip (e.g. concurrent co-passengers).

Description: Exposure interaction occurred in a work setting, i.e. participants are co-workers.

A type of transaction that represents a charge for a service or product. Expressed in monetary terms.

A type of transaction that represents a reversal of a previous charge for a service or product. Expressed in monetary terms. It has the opposite effect of a standard charge.

Set of codes indicating the type of incident or accident.

Incident or accident as the result of a motor vehicle accident

Incident or accident is the result of a school place accident.

Incident or accident is the result of a sporting accident.

Incident or accident is the result of a work place accident

Definition: A code specifying the particular kind of Patient Safety Incident that the Incident class instance represents.

Examples:"Medication incident", "slips, trips and falls incident".The actual value set for the domain will be determined by each (realm) implementation, whose Patient Safety terminology will be specific, although probably linked to the WHO Patient Safety Taxonomy that is currently under development

Description: The type of health information to which the subject of the information or the subject's delegate consents or dissents.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access adverse drug reaction information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access all information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access allergy information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access informational consent information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access demographics information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access diagnostic imaging information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access immunization information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access lab test result information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access medical condition information for a patient.

Definition: Provide consent to view or access medical condition information for a patient.

**Description:**Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access mental health information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access common observation information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access coverage policy or program for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access provider information for a patient.

Description: Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access professional service information for a patient.

**Description:**Provide consent to collect, use, disclose, or access substance abuse information for a patient.

Concepts conveying the context in which authorization given under jurisdictional law, by organizational policy, or by a patient consent directive permits the collection, access, use or disclosure of specified patient health information.

Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or a patient's consent directive, which may be implied, deemed, opt-in, opt-out, or explicit.

Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information as explicitly consented to by the subject of the information or the subject's representative.

Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with judicial system protocol, such as in the case of a subpoena or court order.

Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information where deemed necessary to avert potential danger to other persons in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, disclosure about a person threatening violence.

Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information in accordance with emergency information transfer protocol dictated by jurisdictional law, organization policy, or standards of practice. For example, sharing of health information during disaster response.

Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information necessary to avert potential public welfare risk in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, reporting that a person is a victim of abuse or demonstrating suicidal tendencies.

Authorization to collect, access, use, or disclose specified patient health information for public health, welfare, and safety purposes in accordance with jurisdictional law, organizational policy, or standards of practice. For example, public health reporting of notifiable conditions.

**Definition:**Indicates the set of information types which may be manipulated or referenced, such as for recommending access restrictions.

Description: All patient information.

**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's allergy and intolerance records.

Description: All information pertaining to a patient's adverse drug reactions.

**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's common observation records (height, weight, blood pressure, temperature, etc.).

**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's demographics (such as name, date of birth, gender, address, etc).

**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's diagnostic image records (orders & results).

**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's vaccination records.

Description: All information pertaining to a patient's lab test records (orders & results)

**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's medical condition records.

Description: All information pertaining to a patient's mental health records.

**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's professional service records (such as smoking cessation, counseling, medication review, mental health).

**Definition:**All information pertaining to a patient's medication records (orders, dispenses and other active medications).

Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.

Codes representing a grouping of invoice elements (totals, sub-totals), reported through a Payment Advice or a Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The code can represent summaries by day, location, payee and other cost elements such as bonus, retroactive adjustment and transaction fees.

Codes representing adjustments to a Payment Advice such as retroactive, clawback, garnishee, etc.

Payment initiated by the payor as the result of adjudicating a submitted invoice that arrived to the payor from an electronic source that did not provide a conformant set of HL7 messages (e.g. web claim submission).

Bonus payments based on performance, volume, etc. as agreed to by the payor.

An amount still owing to the payor but the payment is 0$ and this cannot be settled until a future payment is made.

Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for tuition and continuing education.

Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a shorter payment frequency (i.e. next day versus biweekly payments.

Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a per-transaction or time-period (e.g. monthly) fee.

Payment is based on a payment intent for a previously submitted Invoice, based on formal adjudication results..

Payment initiated by the payor as the result of adjudicating a paper (original, may have been faxed) invoice.

An amount that was owed to the payor as indicated, by a carry forward adjusment, in a previous payment advice

Professional association fee that is collected by the payor from the practitioner/provider on behalf of the association

Retroactive adjustment such as fee rate adjustment due to contract negotiations.

Bonus payments based on performance, volume, etc. as agreed to by the payor.

Fees deducted on behalf of a payee for charges based on a per-transaction or time-period (e.g. monthly) fee.

Codes representing adjustments to a Payment Advice such as retroactive, clawback, garnishee, etc.

Codes representing a grouping of invoice elements (totals, sub-totals), reported through a Payment Advice or a Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The code can represent summaries by day, location, payee, etc.

Transaction counts and value totals by invoice type (e.g. RXDINV - Pharmacy Dispense)

Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of an invoice payee.

Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of an invoice payor.

Transaction counts and value totals by each instance of a messaging application on a single processor. It is a registered identifier known to the receivers.

Codes representing a service or product that is being invoiced (billed). The code can represent such concepts as "office visit", "drug X", "wheelchair" and other billable items such as taxes, service charges and discounts.

An identifying data string for healthcare products.

**Description:**United Nations Standard Products and Services Classification, managed by Uniform Code Council (UCC): www.unspsc.org

An identifying data string for A substance used as a medication or in the preparation of medication.

**Description:**Global Trade Item Number is an identifier for trade items developed by GS1 (comprising the former EAN International and Uniform Code Council).

**Description:**Universal Product Code is one of a wide variety of bar code languages widely used in the United States and Canada for items in stores.

The detail item codes to identify charges or changes to the total billing of a claim due to insurance rules and payments.

The billable item codes to identify adjudicator specified components to the total billing of a claim.

That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay for each service and/or product. It is a percentage of the eligible amount for the service/product that is typically charged after the covered party has met the policy deductible. This amount represents the covered party's coinsurance that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.

That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay for each service and/or product. It is a defined amount per service/product of the eligible amount for the service/product. This amount represents the covered party's copayment that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.

That portion of the eligible charges which a covered party must pay in a particular period (e.g. annual) before the benefits are payable by the adjudicator. This amount represents the covered party's deductible that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results.

The guarantor, who may be the patient, pays the entire charge for a service. Reasons for such action may include: there is no insurance coverage for the service (e.g. cosmetic surgery); the patient wishes to self-pay for the service; or the insurer denies payment for the service due to contractual provisions such as the need for prior authorization.

That total amount of the eligible charges which a covered party must periodically pay for services and/or products prior to the Medicaid program providing any coverage. This amount represents the covered party's spend down that is applied to a particular adjudication result. It is expressed as a negative dollar amount in adjudication results

The covered party pays a percentage of the cost of covered services.

The billable item codes to identify modifications to a billable item charge. As for example after hours increase in the office visit fee.

Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing outside of normal working hours.

Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing in a remote location.

Premium paid on service fees in compensation for practicing at a location other than normal working location.

The billable item codes to identify provider supplied charges or changes to the total billing of a claim.

A charge to compensate the provider when a patient cancels an appointment with insufficient time for the provider to make another appointment with another patient.

A reduction in the amount charged as a percentage of the amount. For example a 5% discount for volume purchase.

A premium on a service fee is requested because, due to extenuating circumstances, the service took an extraordinary amount of time or supplies.

Under agreement between the parties (payor and provider), a guaranteed level of income is established for the provider over a specific, pre-determined period of time. The normal course of business for the provider is submission of fee-for-service claims. Should the fee-for-service income during the specified period of time be less than the agreed to amount, a top-up amount is paid to the provider equal to the difference between the fee-for-service total and the guaranteed income amount for that period of time. The details of the agreement may specify (or not) a requirement for repayment to the payor in the event that the fee-for-service income exceeds the guaranteed amount.

Anticipated or actual final fee associated with treating a patient.

Anticipated or actual initial fee associated with treating a patient.

An increase in the amount charged as a percentage of the amount. For example, 12% markup on product cost.

A charge to compensate the provider when a patient does not show for an appointment.

Anticipated or actual periodic fee associated with treating a patient. For example, expected billing cycle such as monthly, quarterly. The actual period (e.g. monthly, quarterly) is specified in the unit quantity of the Invoice Element.

The amount for a performance bonus that is being requested from a payor for the performance of certain services (childhood immunizations, influenza immunizations, mammograms, pap smears) on a sliding scale. That is, for 90% of childhood immunizations to a maximum of $2200/yr. An invoice is created at the end of the service period (one year) and a code is submitted indicating the percentage achieved and the dollar amount claimed.

A charge is requested because the patient failed to pick up the item and it took an amount of time to return it to stock for future use.

A charge to cover the cost of travel time and/or cost in conjuction with providing a service or product. It may be charged per kilometer or per hour based on the effective agreement.

Premium paid on service fees in compensation for providing an expedited response to an urgent situation.

The billable item codes to identify modifications to a billable item charge by a tax factor applied to the amount. As for example 7% provincial sales tax.

Federal tax on transactions such as the Goods and Services Tax (GST)

Joint Federal/Provincial Sales Tax

Tax levied by the provincial or state jurisdiction such as Provincial Sales Tax

An identifying data string for medical facility accommodations.

Accommodation type. In Intent mood, represents the accommodation type requested. In Event mood, represents accommodation assigned/used. In Definition mood, represents the available accommodation type.

**Description:**Accommodation type. In Intent mood, represents the accommodation type requested. In Event mood, represents accommodation assigned/used. In Definition mood, represents the available accommodation type.

Accommodations used in the care of diseases that are transmitted through casual contact or respiratory transmission.

Accommodations in which there is only 1 bed.

Uniquely designed and elegantly decorated accommodations with many amenities available for an additional charge.

Accommodations in which there are 2 beds.

Accommodations in which there are 3 or more beds.

**Description:**External value set for accommodation types used in the U.S. Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) including modifiers.

An identifying data string for healthcare procedures.

**Description:**Physicians Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Manual is a listing of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physicians. Available for the AMA at the address listed for CPT above. These codes are found in Appendix A of CPT 2000 Standard Edition. (CPT 2000 Standard Edition, American Medical Association, Chicago, IL).

**Description:**Health Care Financing Administration Common Procedural Coding System (HCPCS) Codes are procedure identifying codes. HCPCS is Health Care Finance AdministrationaTMs (HFCA) coding scheme to group procedures performed for payment to providers. contains codes for medical equipment, injectable drugs, transportation services, and other services not found in CPT4.

**Description:**International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Procedure Coding System (ICD-10-PCS) are procedure identifying codes. ICD-10-PCS describes the classification of inpatient procedures for statistical purposes.

**Description:**International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Procedure Coding System (ICD-9-PCS) are procedure identifying codes. ICD-9-PCS describes the classification of inpatient procedures for statistical purposes.

An identifying data string for oral health procedure codes, e.g. extract tooth.

Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.

Invoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.

Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.

Invoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.

The domain is only specified for an intermediate invoice element group (non-root or non-top level) for an Invoice.

A grouping of invoice element groups and details including the ones specifying the compound ingredients being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.

A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying an ingredient drug being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as tax or markup.

A grouping of invoice element groups and details including the ones specifying the compound supplies being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.

A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying the drug being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as markup.

A grouping of invoice element details including the ones specifying the frame fee and the frame dispensing cost that are being invoiced.

A grouping of invoice element details including the ones specifying the lens fee and the lens dispensing cost that are being invoiced.

A grouping of invoice element details including the one specifying the product (good or supply) being invoiced. It may also contain generic detail items such as tax or discount.

Type of invoice element that is used to assist in describing an Invoice that is either submitted for adjudication or for which is returned on adjudication results.

Invoice elements of this type signify a grouping of one or more children (detail) invoice elements. They do not have intrinsic costing associated with them, but merely reflect the sum of all costing for it's immediate children invoice elements.

Codes from this domain reflect the type of Invoice such as Pharmacy Dispense, Clinical Service and Clinical Product. The domain is only specified for the root (top level) invoice element group for an Invoice.

Clinical product invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item and is supported by clinical product(s).

For example, a crutch or a wheelchair.

Clinical product invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item and is supported by clinical product(s).

For example, a crutch or a wheelchair.

Clinical Services Invoice which can be used to describe a single service, multiple services or repeated services.

[1] Single Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one billable item and is supported by one clinical service.

For example, a single service for an office visit or simple clinical procedure (e.g. knee mobilization).

[2] Multiple Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains more than one billable item, supported by one or more clinical services. The services can be distinct and over multiple dates, but for the same patient. This type of invoice includes a series of treatments which must be adjudicated together.

For example, an adjustment and ultrasound for a chiropractic session where fees are associated for each of the services and adjudicated (invoiced) together.

[3] Repeated Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item, supported by the same clinical service repeated over a period of time.

For example, the same Chiropractic adjustment (service or treatment) delivered on 3 separate occasions over a period of time at the discretion of the provider (e.g. month).

Clinical Services Invoice which can be used to describe a single service, multiple services or repeated services.

[1] Single Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one billable item and is supported by one clinical service.

For example, a single service for an office visit or simple clinical procedure (e.g. knee mobilization).

[2] Multiple Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains more than one billable item, supported by one or more clinical services. The services can be distinct and over multiple dates, but for the same patient. This type of invoice includes a series of treatments which must be adjudicated together.

For example, an adjustment and ultrasound for a chiropractic session where fees are associated for each of the services and adjudicated (invoiced) together.

[3] Repeated Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Grouping contains one or more billable item, supported by the same clinical service repeated over a period of time.

For example, the same Chiropractic adjustment (service or treatment) delivered on 3 separate occasions over a period of time at the discretion of the provider (e.g. month).

A clinical Invoice Grouping consisting of one or more services and one or more product. Billing for these service(s) and product(s) are supported by multiple clinical billable events (acts).

All items in the Invoice Grouping must be adjudicated together to be acceptable to the Adjudicator.

For example , a brace (product) invoiced together with the fitting (service).

Invoice Grouping without clinical justification. These will not require identification of participants and associations from a clinical context such as patient and provider.

Examples are interest charges and mileage.

A clinical Invoice Grouping consisting of one or more oral health services. Billing for these service(s) are supported by multiple clinical billable events (acts).

All items in the Invoice Grouping must be adjudicated together to be acceptable to the Adjudicator.

HealthCare facility preferred accommodation invoice.

HealthCare facility preferred accommodation invoice.

Pharmacy dispense invoice for a compound.

Pharmacy dispense invoice for a compound.

Pharmacy dispense invoice not involving a compound

Pharmacy dispense invoice not involving a compound

Clinical services invoice where the Invoice Group contains one billable item for multiple clinical services in one or more sessions.

Vision dispense invoice for up to 2 lens (left and right), frame and optional discount. Eye exams are invoiced as a clinical service invoice.

Identifies the different types of summary information that can be reported by queries dealing with Statement of Financial Activity (SOFA). The summary information is generally used to help resolve balance discrepancies between providers and payors.

Total counts and total net amounts adjudicated for all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated within a time period based on the adjudication date of the Invoice Grouping.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as payable during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused prior to the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were adjudicated as refused during the specified time period (based on adjudication date) and submitted manually.

Total counts and total net amounts paid for all Invoice Groupings that were paid within a time period based on the payment date.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently cancelled in the specified period and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date), subsequently nullified in the specified period and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that do not match a specified payee (e.g. pay patient) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid prior to the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted electronically.

Identifies the total net amount of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.

Identifies the total number of all Invoice Groupings that were paid during the specified time period (based on payment date) that match a specified payee (e.g. pay provider) and submitted manually.

Total counts and total net amounts billed for all Invoice Groupings that were submitted within a time period. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.

Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.

Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.

Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.

Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.

Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.

Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.

Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.

Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that were nullified within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are included.

Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.

Identifies the total net amount billed for all submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.

Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.

Identifies the total number of submitted Invoice Groupings that are pended or held by the payor, within a time period and submitted electronically. Adjudicated invoice elements are not included.

Includes coded responses that will occur as a result of the adjudication of an electronic invoice at a summary level and provides guidance on interpretation of the referenced adjudication results.

Insurance coverage problems have been encountered. Additional explanation information to be supplied.

Electronic form with supporting or additional information to follow.

Fax with supporting or additional information to follow.

The medical service was provided to a patient in good faith that they had medical coverage, although no evidence of coverage was available before service was rendered.

Knowingly over the payor's published time limit for this invoice possibly due to a previous payor's delays in processing. Additional reason information will be supplied.

Manual review of the invoice is requested. Additional information to be supplied. This may be used in the case of an appeal.

The medical service and/or product was provided to a patient that has coverage in another jurisdiction.

The service provided is required for orthodontic purposes. If the covered party has orthodontic coverage, then the service may be paid.

Paper documentation (or other physical format) with supporting or additional information to follow.

Public Insurance has been exhausted. Invoice has not been sent to Public Insuror and therefore no Explanation Of Benefits (EOB) is provided with this Invoice submission.

Allows provider to explain lateness of invoice to a subsequent payor.

Rules of practice do not require a physician's referral for the provider to perform a billable service.

The same service was delivered within a time period that would usually indicate a duplicate billing. However, the repeated service is a medical necessity and therefore not a duplicate.

The service provided is not related to another billed service. For example, 2 unrelated services provided on the same day to the same patient which may normally result in a refused payment for one of the items.

The provider has received a verbal permission from an authoritative source to perform the service or supply the item being invoiced.

Provides codes associated with ActClass value of LIST (working list)

List of acts representing a care plan. The acts can be in a varierty of moods including event (EVN) to record acts that have been carried out as part of the care plan.

List of condition observations.

List of intolerance observations.

List of problem observations.

List of risk factor observations.

List of observations in goal mood.

Codes used to identify different types of 'duration-based' working lists. Examples include "Continuous/Chronic", "Short-Term" and "As-Needed".

**Definition:**A collection of concepts that identifies different types of 'duration-based' mediation working lists.

Examples:"Continuous/Chronic" "Short-Term" and "As Needed"

**Definition:**A list of medications which the patient is only expected to consume for the duration of the current order or limited set of orders and which is not expected to be renewed.

**Definition:**A list of medications which are expected to be continued beyond the present order and which the patient should be assumed to be taking unless explicitly stopped.

**Definition:**A list of medications which the patient is intended to be administered only once.

**Definition:**A list of medications which the patient will consume intermittently based on the behavior of the condition for which the medication is indicated.

List of medications.

List of current medications.

List of discharge medications.

Historical list of medications.

**Description:**Describes the high level classification of professional services for grouping.

**Examples:**Education, Counseling, Surgery, etc.

Identifies types of monitoring programs

A monitoring program that focuses on narcotics and/or commonly abused substances that are subject to legal restriction.

DEA schedule for a drug.

**Definition:**A monitoring program that focuses on a drug which is under investigation and has not received regulatory approval for the condition being investigated

**Description:**A drug that can be prescribed (and reimbursed) only if it meets certain criteria.

Medicines designated in this way may be supplied for patient use without a prescription. The exact form of categorisation will vary in different realms.

Some form of prescription is required before the related medicine can be supplied for a patient. The exact form of regulation will vary in different realms.

**Definition:**A drug that requires prior approval (to be reimbursed) before being dispensed

**Description:**A drug that requires special access permission to be prescribed and dispensed.

**Description:**Concepts representing indications (reasons for clinical action) other than diagnosis and symptoms.

**Description:**Contrast agent required for imaging study.

**Description:**Provision of prescription or direction to consume a product for purposes of bowel clearance in preparation for a colonoscopy.

**Description:**Provision of medication as a preventative measure during a treatment or other period of increased risk.

**Description:**Provision of medication during pre-operative phase; e.g., antibiotics before dental surgery or bowel prep before colon surgery.

**Description:**Provision of medication for pregnancy --e.g., vitamins, antibiotic treatments for vaginal tract colonization, etc.

Identifies the type of verification investigation being undertaken with respect to the subject of the verification activity.

Examples:

1. Verification of eligibility for coverage under a policy or program - aka enrolled/covered by a policy or program
2. Verification of record - e.g., person has record in an immunization registry
3. Verification of enumeration - e.g. NPI
4. Verification of Board Certification - provider specific
5. Verification of Certification - e.g. JAHCO, NCQA, URAC
6. Verification of Conformance - e.g. entity use with HIPAA, conformant to the CCHIT EHR system criteria
7. Verification of Provider Credentials
8. Verification of no adverse findings - e.g. on National Provider Data Bank, Health Integrity Protection Data Base (HIPDB)

**Definition:**Indicates that the paper version of the record has, should be or is being verified against the electronic version.

**Definition:**Indicates that the paper version of the record has, should be or is being verified against the electronic version.

Code identifying the method or the movement of payment instructions.

Codes are drawn from X12 data element 591 (PaymentMethodCode)

Automated Clearing House (ACH).

A written order to a bank to pay the amount specified from funds on deposit.

Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) deposit into the payee's bank account

Non-Payment Data.

Identifies types of dispensing events

A fill providing sufficient supply for one day

A supply action where there is no 'valid' order for the supplied medication. E.g. Emergency vacation supply, weekend supply (when prescriber is unavailable to provide a renewal prescription)

An emergency supply where the expectation is that a formal order authorizing the supply will be provided at a later date.

The initial fill against an order. (This includes initial fills against refill orders.)

A first fill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets).

A first fill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.)

A first fill where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength. (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).

A fill where a small portion is provided to allow for determination of the therapy effectiveness and patient tolerance.

A supply action to restock a smaller more local dispensary.

A supply of a manufacturer sample

A fill against an order that has already been filled (or partially filled) at least once.

A supply action that provides sufficient material for a single dose.

A refill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets.)

A refill where the quantity supplied is equal to one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a complete fill would be for the full 90 tablets.) and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).

The first fill against an order that has already been filled at least once at another facility.

The first fill against an order that has already been filled at least once at another facility and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).

A refill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.)

A refill where the quantity supplied is less than one full repetition of the ordered amount. (e.g. If the order was 90 tablets, 3 refills, a partial fill might be for only 30 tablets.) and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).

A fill against an order that has already been filled (or partially filled) at least once and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).

A fill where the remainder of a 'complete' fill is provided after a trial fill has been provided.

A fill where the remainder of a 'complete' fill is provided after a trial fill has been provided and where the strength supplied is less than the ordered strength (e.g. 10mg for an order of 50mg where a subsequent fill will dispense 40mg tablets).

A supply action that provides sufficient material for a single dose via multiple products. E.g. 2 50mg tablets for a 100mg unit dose.

A mandate, regulation, obligation, principle, requirement, rule, or expectation of how an entity is to conduct itself or execute an activity, which may be dictated and enforced by an authority of competent jurisdiction.

Specifies the type or actual definition of a contractually binding agreement or a non-binding representation of that agreement between a grantor and a grantee as to the exchange of the grantee's considerations in return for the grantor's control of certain assets. The type of assets exchanged include rights, license, terms of service, valued items, information and real property assets and control over such assets such as physical and locatable property; intellectual property; biospecimen; genomic and genetic information related to an individual including that disclosed by genetically related individuals with or without the individual's consent; personal identifiable, pseudonymized, anonymized, de-identified per some rubric, and relinkable variants.

Usage Note: Types or actual definitions of a contractually binding agreement or a non-binding representation of that agreement include:

• _ActDecision (formally ActConsentDirective), which specifies the type of decision made by the grantor. The decision types are mapped to ISO/TS 17975 Health informatics - Principles and data requirements for consent in the Collection, Use or Disclosure of personal health information;
• _ActPrivacyConsentDirective, which is the parent of types of registry participation consent directives, and of realm specific privacy consent directive policies such as _USPrivacyConsentDirective and _GDPRPrivacyConsentDirective.

Specifies the type of agreement between one or more grantor and grantee in which rights and obligations related to one or more shared items of interest are allocated.

Usage Note: Such agreements may be considered "consent directives" or "contracts" depending on the context, and are considered closely related or synonymous from a legal perspective.

Examples:

• Healthcare Privacy Consent Directive permitting or restricting in whole or part the collection, access, use, and disclosure of health information, and any associated handling caveats.
• Healthcare Medical Consent Directive to receive medical procedures after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.
• Research Informed Consent for participation in clinical trials and disclosure of health information after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.
• Substitute decision maker delegation in which the grantee assumes responsibility to act on behalf of the grantor.
• Contracts in which the agreement requires assent/dissent by the grantor of terms offered by a grantee, a consumer opts out of an "award" system for use of a retailer's marketing or credit card vendor's point collection cards in exchange for allowing purchase tracking and profiling.
• A mobile device or App privacy policy and terms of service to which a user must agree in whole or in part in order to utilize the service.
• Agreements between a client and an authorization server or between an authorization server and a resource operator and/or resource owner permitting or restricting e.g., collection, access, use, and disclosure of information, and any associated handling caveats.

A grantor's terms of agreement to which a grantee may assent or dissent, and which may include an opportunity for a grantee to request restrictions or extensions.

Comment: A grantor typically is able to stipulate preferred terms of agreement when the grantor has control over the topic of the agreement, which a grantee must accept in full or may be offered an opportunity to extend or restrict certain terms.

Usage Note: If the grantor's term of agreement must be accepted in full, then this is considered "basic consent". If a grantee is offered an opportunity to extend or restrict certain terms, then the agreement is considered "granular consent".

Examples:

• Healthcare: A PHR account holder [grantor] may require any PHR user [grantee] to accept the terms of agreement in full, or may permit a PHR user to extend or restrict terms selected by the account holder or requested by the PHR user.
• Non-healthcare: The owner of a resource server [grantor] may require any authorization server [grantee] to meet authorization requirements stipulated in the grantor's terms of agreement.

A grantor's presumed assent to the grantee's terms of agreement is based on the grantor's behavior, which may result from not expressly assenting to the consent directive offered, or from having no right to assent or dissent offered by the grantee.

Comment: Implied or "implicit" consent occurs when the behavior of the grantor is understood by a reasonable person to signal agreement to the grantee's terms.

Usage Note: Implied consent with no opportunity to assent or dissent to certain terms is considered "basic consent".

Examples:

• Healthcare: A patient schedules an appointment with a provider, and either does not take the opportunity to expressly assent or dissent to the provider's consent directive, does not have an opportunity to do so, as in the case where emergency care is required, or simply behaves as though the patient [grantor] agrees to the rights granted to the provider [grantee] in an implicit consent directive.
• An injured and unconscious patient is deemed to have assented to emergency treatment by those permitted to do so under jurisdictional laws, e.g., Good Samaritan laws.
• Non-healthcare: Upon receiving a driver's license, the driver is deemed to have assented without explicitly consenting to undergoing field sobriety tests.
• A corporation that does business in a foreign nation is deemed to have deemed to have assented without explicitly consenting to abide by that nation's laws.

A grantor's presumed assent to the grantee's terms of agreement, which is based on the grantor's behavior, and includes a right to dissent to certain terms.

Comment: A grantor assenting to the grantee's terms of agreement may or may not exercise a right to dissent to grantor selected terms or to grantee's selected terms to which a grantor may dissent.

Usage Note: Implied or "implicit" consent with an "opportunity to dissent" occurs when the grantor's behavior is understood by a reasonable person to signal assent to the grantee's terms of agreement whether the grantor requests or the grantee approves further restrictions, is considered "granular consent".

Examples:

• Healthcare Examples: A healthcare provider deems a patient's assent to disclosure of health information to family members and friends, but offers an opportunity or permits the patient to dissent to such disclosures.
• A health information exchanges deems a patient to have assented to disclosure of health information for treatment purposes, but offers the patient an opportunity to dissents to disclosure to particular provider organizations.
• Non-healthcare Examples: A bank deems a banking customer's assent to specified collection, access, use, or disclosure of financial information as a requirement of holding a bank account, but provides the user an opportunity to limit third-party collection, access, use or disclosure of that information for marketing purposes.

No notification or opportunity is provided for a grantor to assent or dissent to a grantee's terms of agreement.

Comment: A "No Consent" policy scheme provides no opportunity for accommodation of an individual's preferences, and may not comply with Fair Information Practice Principles [FIPP] by enabling the data subject to object, access collected information, correct errors, or have accounting of disclosures.

Usage Note: The grantee's terms of agreement, may be available to the grantor by reviewing the grantee's privacy policies, but there is no notice by which a grantor is apprised of the policy directly or able to acknowledge.

Examples:

• Healthcare: Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a patient's health information is automatically included in and available (often according to certain rules) through a health information exchange. Note that this differs from implied consent, where the patient is assumed to have consented.
• Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a patient's health information is collected, accessed, used, or disclosed for research, public health, security, fraud prevention, court order, or law enforcement.
• Non-healthcare: Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a consumer's healthcare or non-healthcare internet searches are aggregated for secondary uses such as behavioral tracking and profiling.
• Without notification or an opportunity to assent or dissent, a consumer's location and activities in a shopping mall are tracked by RFID tags on purchased items.

A grantor's assent to the terms of an agreement offered by a grantee without an opportunity for to dissent to any terms.

Comment: Acceptance of a grantee's terms pertaining, for example, to permissible activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, expiry date, and revocation policies.

Usage Note: Opt-in with no opportunity for a grantor to restrict certain permissions sought by the grantee is considered "basic consent".

Examples:

• Healthcare: A patient [grantor] signs a provider's [grantee's] consent directive form, which lists permissible collection, access, use, or disclosure activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, and revocation policies.
• Non-healthcare: An employee [grantor] signs an employer's [grantee's] non-disclosure and non-compete agreement.

A grantor's assent to the grantee's terms of an agreement with an opportunity for to dissent to certain grantor or grantee selected terms.

Comment: A grantor dissenting to the grantee's terms of agreement may or may not exercise a right to assent to grantor's pre-approved restrictions or to grantee's selected terms to which a grantor may dissent.

Usage Note: Opt-in with restrictions is considered "granular consent" because the grantor has an opportunity to narrow the permissions sought by the grantee.

Examples:

• Healthcare: A patient assent to grantee's consent directive terms for collection, access, use, or disclosure of health information, and dissents to disclosure to certain recipients as allowed by the provider's pre-approved restriction list.
• Non-Healthcare: A cell phone user assents to the cell phone's privacy practices and terms of use, but dissents from location tracking by turning off the cell phone's tracking capability.

A grantor's dissent to the terms of agreement offered by a grantee without an opportunity for to assent to any terms.

Comment: Rejection of a grantee's terms of agreement pertaining, for example, to permissible activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, expiry date, and revocation policies.

Usage Note: Opt-out with no opportunity for a grantor to permit certain permissions sought by the grantee is considered "basic consent".

Examples:

• Healthcare: A patient [grantor] declines to sign a provider's [grantee's] consent directive form, which lists permissible collection, access, use, or disclosure activities, purposes of use, handling caveats, revocation policies, and consequences of not assenting.
• Non-healthcare: An employee [grantor] refuses to sign an employer's [grantee's] agreement not to join unions or participate in a strike where state law protects employee's collective bargaining rights.
• A citizen [grantor] refuses to enroll in mandatory government [grantee] health insurance based on religious beliefs, which is an exemption.

A grantor's dissent to the grantee's terms of agreement except for certain grantor or grantee selected terms.

Comment: A rejection of a grantee's terms of agreement while assenting to certain permissions sought by the grantee or requesting approval of additional grantor terms.

Usage Note: Opt-out with exceptions is considered a "granular consent" because the grantor has an opportunity to accept certain permissions sought by the grantee or request additional grantor terms, while rejecting other grantee terms.

Examples:

• Healthcare: A patient [grantor] dissents to a health information exchange consent directive with the exception of disclosure based on a limited "time to live" shared secret [e.g., a token or password], which the patient can give to a provider when seeking care.
• Non-healthcare: A social media user [grantor] dissents from public access to their account, but assents to access to a circle of friends.

Specifies types of consent directives governing the collection, access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual.

European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) consent directives.

A consent directive compliant with the European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) definition: Consent of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her.

Where processing is based on consent, the controller shall be able to demonstrate that the data subject has consented to processing of his or her personal data. If the data subject's consent is given in the context of a written declaration which also concerns other matters, the request for consent shall be presented in a manner which is clearly distinguishable from the other matters, in an intelligible and easily accessible form, using clear and plain language. Any part of such a declaration which constitutes an infringement of this Regulation shall not be binding. The data subject shall have the right to withdraw his or her consent at any time. The withdrawal of consent shall not affect the lawfulness of processing based on consent before its withdrawal. Prior to giving consent, the data subject shall be informed thereof. It shall be as easy to withdraw as to give consent. When assessing whether consent is freely given, utmost account shall be taken of whether, inter alia, the performance of a contract, including the provision of a service, is conditional on consent to the processing of personal data that is not necessary for the performance of that contract. Consent should be given by a clear affirmative act establishing a freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her, such as by a written statement, including by electronic means, or an oral statement. This could include ticking a box when visiting an internet website, choosing technical settings for information society services or another statement or conduct which clearly indicates in this context the data subject's acceptance of the proposed processing of his or her personal data. Silence, pre-ticked boxes or inactivity should not therefore constitute consent. Consent should cover all processing activities carried out for the same purpose or purposes. When the processing has multiple purposes, consent should be given for all of them. If the data subject's consent is to be given following a request by electronic means, the request must be clear, concise and not unnecessarily disruptive to the use of the service for which it is provided.

Usage Note: Article 4.11 GDPR Definitions https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/ 11) 'Consent' of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her. Article 7 GDPR Conditions for consent https://gdpr-info.eu/art-7-gdpr Recital 32 Conditions for consent* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-32 Recital 42 Burden of proof and requirements for consent* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-42/> Recital 43 Freely given consent* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-43 GDPR Consent Brief https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/consent/ Art. 4 GDPR Definitions Art. 6 GDPR Lawfulness of processing Art. 7 GDPR Conditions for consent Art. 8 GDPR Conditions applicable to child's consent in relation to information society services Art. 9 GDPR Processing of special categories of personal data Art. 22 GDPR Automated individual decision-making, including profiling Art. 49 GDPR Derogations for specific situations

Relevant GDPR Recitals: (32) Conditions for consent (33) Consent to certain areas of scientific research (38) Special protection of children's personal data (40) Lawfulness of data processing (42) Burden of proof and requirements for consent (43) Freely given consent (50) Further processing of personal data (51) Protecting sensitive personal data (54) Processing of sensitive data in public health sector (71) Profiling (111) Exceptions for certain cases of international transfers (155) Processing in the employment context (161) Consenting to the participation in clinical trials (171) Repeal of Directive 95/46/EC and transitional provisions

A consent directive that complies with regulatory requirements for a consent directive compliant with the European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) definition: Consent of the data subject means any freely given, specific, informed and unambiguous indication of the data subject's wishes by which he or she, by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal data relating to him or her.

GDPR research consent directive has the additional caveat that it is often not possible to fully identify the purpose of personal data processing for scientific research purposes at the time of data collection. Therefore, data subjects should be allowed to give their consent to certain areas of scientific research when in keeping with recognized ethical standards for scientific research. Data subjects should have the opportunity to give their consent only to certain areas of research or parts of research projects to the extent allowed by the intended purpose.

Usage Note: HL7 Purpose of Use codes include specialize research purposes of use, which could be used to convey a data subject's purpose of use restrictions related to areas of research or parts of research projects. See citations for GDPRResearchCD and below: Recital 33 Consent to certain areas of scientific research https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-33/> Recital 157 Information from registries and scientific research https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-157 Recital 159 Processing for scientific research purposes* https://gdpr-info.eu/recitals/no-159/

Specifies types of consent directives authorizing a registry or repository to collect and, under certain terms, manage the access, use, and disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual.

Registries governed by registry consent directives are data management systems, which use metadata to support the collection, access, use, and disclosure of personal information or effects as well as observational or analytic information generated about personal information or effects stored in federated repositories. Such registries are used for a variety of purposes by federated health information exchanges, health information systems, personal record systems, and research organizations to locate and retrieve personal information or effects as well as observational or analytic information generated about personal information stored externally to their systems.

Repositories governed by registry consent directives are data stores used to collect, access, use, and disclose personal information or effects as well as observational or analytic information generated about personal information or effects and metadata used to manage the repository contents. Such repositories are used for a variety of purposes by centralized health information exchanges, health information systems used by providers and payers, personal record systems, and research organizations. A repository typically includes a registry component that provides the data store with content management capabilities for internal purposes. A repository may also interface with one or more external registries, which provide federated content management.

An expressed privacy consent directive permitting the collection of a some or all personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.

Usage Note: Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-in to collection of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.

Map: An "expressed" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for "Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care" and "Opt-in".

An expressed privacy consent directive permitting access, use, or disclosure of a some or all personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.

Usage Note: Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-in to access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.

Map: An "expressed" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care and "Opt-in".

An expressed privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting collection of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.

Usage Note: Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-out of access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.

Map: An "expressed" opt-out to collection consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for "Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care" and "Express or Expressed (and Informed) Denial".

An expressed privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for purposes such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, data analytics, marketing, and profiling.

Usage Note: Useful when a more specific jurisdictional or organizational consent directive policy or form is not specified, available, or known, for example, where an individual wishes to opt-out of access, use, or disclosure of some or all of the individual's information by multiple registries and repositories.

Map: An "expressed" opt-out to sharing consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definitions for "Express or Expressed: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is expressly given by the subject of care" and "Express or Expressed (and Informed) Denial".

Specific US privacy consent directives in accordance with US federal, state, regional, organizational, or personal privacy policies.

A code representing an individual's privacy consent directive that complies with 42 CFR Part 2.31 Consent requirements https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title42-vol1-sec2-31.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a written consent to a disclosure under the regulations in Part 2.

(1) The name of the patient. (2) The specific name(s) or general designation(s) of the part 2 program(s), entity(ies), or individual(s) permitted to make the disclosure. (3) How much and what kind of information is to be disclosed, including an explicit description of the substance use disorder information that may be disclosed. (4) (i) The name(s) of the individual(s) to whom a disclosure is to be made; or (ii)Entities with a treating provider relationship with the patient. If the recipient entity has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed, such as a hospital, a health care clinic, or a private practice, the name of that entity; or (iii)Entities without a treating provider relationship with the patient. (A) If the recipient entity does not have a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed and is a third-party payer, the name of the entity; or (B) If the recipient entity does not have a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed and is not covered by paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, such as an entity that facilitates the exchange of health information or a research institution, the name(s) of the entity(-ies); and (1) The name(s) of an individual participant(s); or (2) The name(s) of an entity participant(s) that has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed; or (3) A general designation of an individual or entity participant(s) or class of participants that must be limited to a participant(s) who has a treating provider relationship with the patient whose information is being disclosed. (i) When using a general designation, a statement must be included on the consent form that the patient (or other individual authorized to sign in lieu of the patient), confirms their understanding that, upon their request and consistent with this part, they must be provided a list of entities to which their information has been disclosed pursuant to the general designation (see Section 2.13(d)). (ii) [Reserved] (5) The purpose of the disclosure. In accordance with Section 2.13(a), the disclosure must be limited to that information which is necessary to carry out the stated purpose. (6) A statement that the consent is subject to revocation at any time except to the extent that the part 2 program or other lawful holder of patient identifying information that is permitted to make the disclosure has already acted in reliance on it. Acting in reliance includes the provision of treatment services in reliance on a valid consent to disclose information to a third-party payer (7) The date, event, or condition upon which the consent will expire if not revoked before. This date, event, or condition must ensure that the consent will last no longer than reasonably necessary to serve the purpose for which it is provided. (8) The signature of the patient and, when required for a patient who is a minor, the signature of an individual authorized to give consent under Section 2.14; or, when required for a patient who is incompetent or deceased, the signature of an individual authorized to sign under Section 2.15. Electronic signatures are permitted to the extent that they are not prohibited by any applicable law. (9) The date on which the consent is signed.

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's 42 CFR Part 2.31 consent directive, "42CFRPart2CD" as the security label policy code.

Since information governed by an individual's 42 CFR Part 2.31 consent directive has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR § 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "R" (restricted).

A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section specific to disclosures for purposes of research when combined with a Common Rule or Federal Drug Administration consent to participate in research also known as a compound authorization.

Usage Note: The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) has developed the Informed Consent and Authorization Toolkit for Minimal Risk Research to facilitate the process of obtaining informed consent and Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) authorization from potential research subjects. This toolkit contains information for people responsible for ensuring that potential research subjects are informed in a manner that is consistent with medical ethics and regulatory guidelines. From https://www.ahrq.gov/sites/default/files/publications/files/ictoolkit.pdf.

Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's right of access directive under 45 CFR Section 164.508 use "CompoundResearchCD" as the security label policy code.

Information or biospecimen disclosed under the Common Rule are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "M" (moderate).

See ActCode._ActPolicyType._ActPrivacyPolicy._ActPrivacyLaw._ActUSPrivacyLaw.HIPAAAuth (HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure). See: HIPAAAuth and NIH Sample Authorization Language for Research Uses and Disclosures of Individually Identifiable Health Information by a Covered Health Care Provider https://privacyruleandresearch.nih.gov/authorization.asp

A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section.

An "authorization" is required by the Privacy Rule for uses and disclosures of protected health information not otherwise allowed by the Rule. Where the Privacy Rule requires patient authorization, voluntary consent is not sufficient to permit a use or disclosure of protected health information unless it also satisfies the requirements of a valid authorization. An authorization is a detailed document that gives covered entities permission to use protected health information for specified purposes, which are generally other than treatment, payment, or health care operations, or to disclose protected health information to a third party specified by the individual.

An authorization must specify a number of elements, including a description of the protected health information to be used and disclosed, the person authorized to make the use or disclosure, the person to whom the covered entity may make the disclosure, an expiration date, and, in some cases, the purpose for which the information may be used or disclosed. With limited exceptions, covered entities may not condition treatment or coverage on the individual providing an authorization. https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html

A HIPAA Authorization must comply with 45 CFR Section164.508(c) Implementation specifications: Core elements and requirements - (1) Core elements. A valid authorization under this Section must contain at least the following elements: (i) A description of the information to be used or disclosed that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful fashion. (ii) The name or other specific identification of the person(s), or class of persons, authorized to make the requested use or disclosure. (iii) The name or other specific identification of the person(s), or class of persons, to whom the covered entity may make the requested use or disclosure. (iv) A description of each purpose of the requested use or disclosure. The statement "at the request of the individual" is a sufficient description of the purpose when an individual initiates the authorization and does not, or elects not to, provide a statement of the purpose. (v) An expiration date or an expiration event that relates to the individual or the purpose of the use or disclosure. The statement "end of the research study," "none," or similar language is sufficient if the authorization is for a use or disclosure of protected health information for research, including for the creation and maintenance of a research database or research repository. (vi) Signature of the individual and date. If the authorization is signed by a personal representative of the individual, a description of such representative's authority to act for the individual must also be provided. (2)Required statements. In addition to the core elements, the authorization must contain statements adequate to place the individual on notice of all of the following: (i) The individual's right to revoke the authorization in writing, and either: (A) The exceptions to the right to revoke and a description of how the individual may revoke the authorization; or (B) To the extent that the information in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section is included in the notice required by Section 164.520, a reference to the covered entity's notice. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure, use "HIPAAAuthCD" as the security label policy code.

Information governed under a HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, which is considered the "norm", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "N" (normal).

A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf, which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a "consent."

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's consent directive under 45 CFR Section 164.522 use "HIPAAConsentCD" as the security label policy code.

Since information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "R" (restricted).

A code representing an individual's consent directive that complies with HIPAA Privacy rule 45 CFR Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is a US Federal law stipulating the policy elements of a valid authorization under this Section specific to disclosures for purposes of research.

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research under 45 CFR Section 164.508 use "HIPAAResearchAuthCD" as the security label policy code.

Information disclosed under an individual's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure for Research are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "M" (moderate).

See ActCode._ActPolicyType._ActPrivacyPolicy._ActPrivacyLaw._ActUSPrivacyLaw.HIPAAAuth (HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure). See: HIPAAAuth and NIH Sample Authorization Language for Research Uses and Disclosures of Individually Identifiable Health Information by a Covered Health Care Provider https://privacyruleandresearch.nih.gov/authorization.asp

A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.524 Access of individuals to protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524.pdf, stipulating the policy elements of an individual's written and signed right of access directive requesting that a covered entity send the individual's protected health information (PHI) to a third party.

See 45 CFR 164.524(c)(3)(ii) If an individual's request for access directs the covered entity to transmit the copy of protected health information directly to another person designated by the individual, the covered entity must provide the copy to the person designated by the individual. The individual's request must be in writing, signed by the individual, and clearly identify the designated person and where to send the copy of protected health information. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524.pdf

This right applies to PHI in a designated record set, which is defined as "Designated record set means: (1) A group of records maintained by or for a covered entity that is: (i) The medical records and billing records about individuals maintained by or for a covered health care provider; (ii) The enrollment, payment, claims adjudication, and case or medical management record systems maintained by or for a health plan; or (iii) Used, in whole or in part, by or for the covered entity to make decisions about individuals. [https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/45/164.501]. Also see HHS Individuals' Right under HIPAA to Access their Health Information 45 CFR Section 164.524 [https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/privacy/guidance/access/index.html#maximumflatfee].

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by an individual's right of access directive under 45 CFR Section 164.524 use "HIPAAROAD" as the security label policy code.

Information disclosed under a HIPAA 42 CFR Section 164.524 no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the "norm", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "M" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.

The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to behavioral health and substance use treatment in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014. In Michigan, while providers are not required to use this new standard form (MDHHS-5515), they are required to accept it.

Usage Note: For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550_2941_58005-343686--,00.html

The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to behavioral health governed by the Michigan Mental Health Code Act 258 of 1974, which require patient authorization for purposes other than treatment, payment, and coordination of care, in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014.

Usage Note: For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550_2941_58005-343686--,00.html

The State of Michigan standard privacy consent form for sharing of health information specific to substance use information governed under US 42 CFR Part 2 in accordance with Public Act 129 of 2014.

Usage Note: For legislative background, current MDHHS-5515 consent directive form, and provider and patient FAQs see http://www.michigan.gov/mdhhs/0,5885,7-339-71550_2941_58005-343686--,00.html

An informed assertion by a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in research. Assent means a child's affirmative agreement to participate in a clinical investigation. Mere failure to object should not, absent affirmative agreement, be construed as assent. The minor's assent must be accompanied by parental or guardian consent that the minor participate in a specified research. The assent is not legally binding, however, the accompanying consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 21 CFR Part 50, Subpart D - Additional Safeguards for Children in Clinical Investigations. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/21/part-50/subpart-D

An informed assertion by an adult, or the parent/guardian of a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in a specified research study. The consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 49 CFR § 11.116 - General Requirements for Informed Consent. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/49/11.116

An informed assertion by an adult, or the parent/guardian of a minor who is a candidate research subject, of the individual's willingness to participate in unspecified research studies, including storage, maintenance, and secondary research use of identifiable biospecimens and data. If broad consent is obtained, any subsequent storage, maintenance, and secondary research uses of the individual’s identifiable biospecimens and data consistent with the broad consent would not require additional consent, so long as additional conditions are met, including limited review by an IRB. The consent is legally binding. Background: In the US, informed assent is governed under 49 CFR § 11.116 - General Requirements for Informed Consent. Available at https://www.law.cornell.edu/cfr/text/49/11.116

The type of action permitted on information by jurisdictional, organizational, or personal policy.

Authorization to obtain information with no further permission to collect and store it.

Authorization to gather and store information.

Authorization to alter or remove identifying characteristics of an entity or individual that is a subject of the information.

Authorization to make information known to another party.

Authorization to alter information in order to conceal it from unauthorized recipients.

Authorization to access information within a specific context for communication purposes only. Storing, manipulating, and further disclosure are prohibited and may be technically disabled.

Authorization to remove information that a recipient is not authorized to access.

Authorization to make disclosed information known to another party.

Authorization to alter or relink deidentified information so that an entity or individual that is the subject of that information identifiable.

Authorization to employ or alter information.

Information management directives related to privacy, security, integrity, and control concerns, which may be governed by specific laws; based on private sector self-governance; adopted "best practices" recognized by a community of interest; or terms of license, participation, or service as implemented in jurisdictional, organizational, or personal policies.

Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.

Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of controlled unclassified information as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.

Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.

Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set as defined by applicable jurisdictional law.

Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by applicable jurisdiction law.

Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed public by applicable jurisdiction law.

Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of specified controlled unclassified information as defined by applicable jurisdictional policy.

Jurisdictional policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of uncontrolled unclassified information as defined by applicable jurisdictional policy.

Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information, which does not conflict with jurisdictional law.

Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of basic controlled unclassified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.

Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.

Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.

Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.

Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of public information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.

Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of specified controlled unclassified information as defined by the organization or by applicable jurisdictional law.

Organizational policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of uncontrolled unclassified information as defined by the organization or governing jurisdiction.

Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information.

Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of de-identified information as defined by the information subject or by applicable jurisdictional law.

Personal policy personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information in a limited data set by the information subject.

Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed non-sensitive by the information subject.

Personal policy on collection, access, use, or disclosure of information deemed public by the information subject.

A policy deeming certain information to be private to an individual or organization.

Definition: A mandate, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation relating to privacy.

Discussion: ActPrivacyPolicyType codes support the designation of the 1..* policies that are applicable to an Act such as a Consent Directive, a Role such as a VIP Patient, or an Entity such as a patient who is a minor. 1..* ActPrivacyPolicyType values may be associated with an Act or Role to indicate the policies that govern the assignment of an Act or Role confidentialityCode. Use of multiple ActPrivacyPolicyType values enables fine grain specification of applicable policies, but must be carefully assigned to ensure cogency and avoid creation of conflicting policy mandates.

Usage Note: Statutory title may be named in the ActClassPolicy Act Act.title to specify which privacy policy is being referenced.

Specifies the type of agreement between one or more grantor and grantee in which rights and obligations related to one or more shared items of interest are allocated.

Usage Note: Such agreements may be considered "consent directives" or "contracts" depending on the context, and are considered closely related or synonymous from a legal perspective.

Examples:

• Healthcare Privacy Consent Directive permitting or restricting in whole or part the collection, access, use, and disclosure of health information, and any associated handling caveats.
• Healthcare Medical Consent Directive to receive medical procedures after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.
• Research Informed Consent for participation in clinical trials and disclosure of health information after being informed of risks and benefits, thereby reducing the grantee's liability.
• Substitute decision maker delegation in which the grantee assumes responsibility to act on behalf of the grantor.
• Contracts in which the agreement requires assent/dissent by the grantor of terms offered by a grantee, a consumer opts out of an "award" system for use of a retailer's marketing or credit card vendor's point collection cards in exchange for allowing purchase tracking and profiling.
• A mobile device or App privacy policy and terms of service to which a user must agree in whole or in part in order to utilize the service.
• Agreements between a client and an authorization server or between an authorization server and a resource operator and/or resource owner permitting or restricting e.g., collection, access, use, and disclosure of information, and any associated handling caveats.

Privacy consent directive restricting or prohibiting access, use, or disclosure of personal information, including de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, which may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository for all purposes except for emergency treatment generally, which may include treatment during a disaster, a threat, in an emergency department and for break the glass purposes of use as specified by applicable domain policy.

Usage Note: To specify the scope of an "EMRGONLY" consent directive within a policy domain, use one or more of the following Purpose of Use codes in the ActReason code system OID: 2.16.840.1.113883.5.8.

• ETREAT (Emergency Treatment): To perform one or more operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition.
• BTG (break the glass): To perform policy override operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition affecting potential harm, death or patient safety by end users who are not provisioned for this purpose of use. Includes override of organizational provisioning policies and may include override of subject of care consent directive restricting access.
• ERTREAT (emergency room treatment): To perform one or more operations on information for provision of immediately needed health care for an emergent condition in an emergency room or similar emergent care context by end users provisioned for this purpose, which does not constitute as policy override such as in a "Break the Glass" purpose of use.
• THREAT (threat): To perform one or more operations on information used to prevent injury or disease to living subjects who may be the target of violence.
• DISASTER (disaster): To perform one or more operations on information used for provision of immediately needed health care to a population of living subjects located in a disaster zone.

Map: An "emergency only" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) 5.13 Exceptional access

An implied privacy consent directive or notification, which the data subject may or may not acknowledge. The notification specifies permitted actions, which may include access, use, or disclosure of any and all personal information. The notification specifies the scope of personal information, which may include de-identified information, and personal effects, such as biometrics, biospecimen or genetic material, that may be used to identify an individual in a registry or repository. The notification specifies the purposes for which personal information may be used such as treatment, payment, operations, research, information exchange, public health, disaster, quality and safety reporting; as required by law including court order, law enforcement, national security, military authorities; and for data analytics, marketing, and profiling.

Usage Notes: Map: An "implied" consent directive maps to ISO/TS 17975:2015(E) definition forImplied: Consent to Collect, Use and Disclose personal health information is implied by the actions or inactions of the individual and the circumstances under which it was implied".

A jurisdictional mandate, regulation, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation deeming certain information to be private to an individual or organization, which is imposed on:

• The activity of a governed party
• The behavior of a governed party
• The manner in which an act is executed by a governed party

GDPR is a regulation on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive 95/46/EC (Data Protection Directive). Promulgated by the European Parliament and Council of the European Union. Regulation available at L119, 4 May 2016, p. 1-88.

GDPR privacy policies specifying types of lawful personal data processing based on a controller meeting one or more processing condition such as specified by law, compliance with data controller legal obligations, protection of data subject's vital interests, perform tasks in the public interest, related to legal claims, research and statistics, management of health or social care systems, legitimate interests of controller or third party. Processing sensitive personal data, including genetic, biometric and health data, as well as personal data from which racial and ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or ideological convictions or membership in a union can be attributed to a person, requires meeting at least one sensitive personal processing condition.

GDPR 'processing' means any operation or set of operations which is performed on personal data or on sets of personal data, whether or not by automated means, such as collection, recording, organisation, structuring, storage, adaptation or alteration, retrieval, consultation, use, disclosure by transmission, dissemination or otherwise making available, alignment or combination, restriction, erasure or destruction. Article 4 https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/

Usage Note:

• Confidentiality: e.g., U (unrestricted) for anonymized personal information; L (low) for pseudonymized U (unrestricted) for anonymized personal information; M (moderate) for indirectly identifiable information such as test scores and work times; N (normal) for personal information; and R (restricted) for sensitive personal information
• DPR sensitivity [personal data revealing racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, or trade union membership, and the processing of genetic data, biometric data for the purpose of uniquely identifying a natural person, data concerning health or data concerning a natural person's sex life or sexual orientation, some of which are defined at Article 4 https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/
• GDPR processing policies and GDPR ConsentDirectiveTypes, such as data subject consent and research consent.
• Other security category codes, such as compartment codes for legitimate relationship,
• Handling instructions including
• Purpose of use stipulated in a GDPR consent or contract restricting processing or related to the scope of the processing policy such as public health, research, and legal obligations
• Obligation policies such as GDPR Information Obligations https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/information-obligations, data minimization and deleting when processing is complete
• Refrain policies such as no relinking

See Intersoft GDPR at https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/personal-data/ Art. 4 GDPR Definitions https://gdpr-info.eu/art-4-gdpr/ Art. 9 GDPR Processing of special categories of personal data https://gdpr-info.eu/art-9-gdpr/ Relevant Recitals (26) Not applicable to anonymous data (30) Online identifiers for profiling and identification (34) Genetic data (35) Health data (51) Protecting sensitive personal data at Intersoft GDPR briefing papers and navigating tool https://gdpr-info.eu/

Authorities

• European Data Protection Supervisor - Security Measures for Personal Data Processing (Link)
• Data Protection Authority Isle of Man - Know your data - Mapping the 5 W's (Link)
• Data Protection Authority UK - Key definitions (Link)
• European Commission - What is personal data? (Link)
• European Commission - What personal data is considered sensitive? (Link)
• EU publications - Handbook on European data protection law - Personal data, page 83 (Link)

Expert contribution A&L Goodbody - The GDPR: A Guide for Businesses - Definition of Personal & Sensitive Data, Page 8 (Link) Bird & Bird - Sensitive data and lawful processing (Link) https://ec.europa.eu/commission/priorities/justice-and-fundamental-rights/data-protection/2018-reform-eu-data-protection-rules_en General Data Protection Regulation https://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1528874672298&uri=CELEX%3A32016R0679 Communication on data protection - guidance on direct application of the GDPR http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1517578296944&uri=CELEX%3A52018DC0043 Intersoft GDPR briefing papers and navigating tool https://gdpr-info.eu/

Processing of personal data, inclusive of the special categories of data, is lawful only if the data subject has given explicit consent to the processing of his or her personal data, inclusive of the special categories of data, for one or more specific purposes, except where Union or Member State law provide that the prohibition to use the data may not be lifted by the data subject; and for personal data which are manifestly made public by the data subject.

Usage Note: The description is based on the following GDPR provisions: Article 6.1.a https://gdpr-info.eu/art-6-gdpr/ 1Processing shall be lawful only if and to the extent that at least one of the following applies: (a) the data subject has given consent to the processing of his or her personal data for one or more specific purposes. Article 9.1, 9.2a., 9.2.e https://gdpr-info.eu/art-9-gdpr/ 1. Processing of personal data revealing racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, or trade union membership, and the processing of genetic data, biometric data for the purpose of uniquely identifying a natural person, data concerning health or data concerning a natural person's sex life or sexual orientation shall be prohibited. 2. Paragraph 1 shall not apply if one of the following applies: (a) the data subject has given explicit consent to the processing of those personal data for one or more specified purposes, except where Union or Member State law provide that the prohibition referred to in paragraph 1 may not be lifted by the data subject; and (e) processing relates to personal data which are manifestly made public by the data subject.

Definition: A jurisdictional mandate in the U.S. relating to privacy.

Usage Note: ActPrivacyLaw codes may be associated with an Act or a Role to indicate the legal provision to which the assignment of an Act.confidentialityCode or Role.confidentialtyCode complies. May be used to further specify rationale for assignment of other ActPrivacyPolicy codes in the US realm, e.g., ETH and 42CFRPart2 can be differentiated from ETH and Title38Part1.

A code representing 42 CFR Part 2 Confidentiality of Substance Use Disorder Patient Records. 42 CFR Part 2 stipulates the privacy rights of an individual who has applied for or been given diagnosis or treatment for alcohol or drug abuse at a federally assisted program, which includes non-disclosure of health information relating to health care paid for by a federally assisted substance use disorder program without patient consent. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2010-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2010-title42-vol1-part2.pdf

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, and disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 42 CFR Part 2 Confidentiality of Substance Use Disorder Patient Records https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2010-title42-vol1/pdf/CFR-2010-title42-vol1-part2.pdf use "42CFRPart2" as the security label policy code.

Since information governed by a 42 CFR Part 2 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "R" (restricted).

A code representing U.S. Federal laws governing research-related privacy policies known as the "Common Rule". The Common Rule is the U.S. Federal regulations governing the protection of human subjects in research (codified at Subpart A of 45 CFR part 46), which has been adopted by 15 U.S. Federal departments and agencies in an effort to promote uniformity, understanding, and compliance with human subject protections. Existing regulations governing the protection of human subjects in Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-regulated research (21 CFR parts 50, 56, 312, and 812) are separate from the Common Rule but include similar requirements.

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information or biospecimen is governed by the Common Rule use "COMMONRULE" as the security label policy code. Information or biospecimen disclosed under the Common Rule are not protected by the HIPAA Privacy Rule. If protected under other laws such as confidentiality provisions under the Common Rule, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "M" (moderate).

A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.508) Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual to use or disclose protected health information for other purposes, or to authorize another covered entity to disclose protected health information to the requesting covered entity, are termed "authorizations".

An "authorization" is required by the Privacy Rule for uses and disclosures of protected health information not otherwise allowed by the Rule. Where the Privacy Rule requires patient authorization, voluntary consent is not sufficient to permit a use or disclosure of protected health information unless it also satisfies the requirements of a valid authorization. An authorization is a detailed document that gives covered entities permission to use protected health information for specified purposes, which are generally other than treatment, payment, or health care operations, or to disclose protected health information to a third party specified by the individual.

An authorization must specify a number of elements, including a description of the protected health information to be used and disclosed, the person authorized to make the use or disclosure, the person to whom the covered entity may make the disclosure, an expiration date, and, in some cases, the purpose for which the information may be used or disclosed. With limited exceptions, covered entities may not condition treatment or coverage on the individual providing an authorization. https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, where use or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a covered entity's HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure, use "HIPAAAuth" as the security label policy code.

Information disclosed under a HIPAA Authorization for Disclosure no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the "norm", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "M" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.

A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.522), which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a "consent".

The Privacy Rule permits, but does not require, a covered entity to voluntarily obtain patient consent for uses and disclosures of protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations. Covered entities that do so have complete discretion to design a process that best suits their needs. From https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html. The provisions relating to consent are largely contained in Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf.

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 45 CFR Section 164.522 use 'HIPAAConsent' as the security label policy code.

Since information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code 'R' (restricted).

A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.520), which stipulates an individual's right to adequate notice of the uses and disclosures of protected health information that may be made by the covered entity, and of the individual's rights and the covered entity's legal duties with respect to protected health information. Relevant HIPAA Privacy Rule provisions are at Section 164.520 (a) Standard: Notice of privacy practices. https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-520.pdf

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, if collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by a covered entity's HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices, use "HIPAANOPP" as the security label policy code.

Information governed under a HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf , which is considered the "norm", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "N" (normal).

A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.508), which stipulates the privacy rights of an individual who is the subject of psychotherapy notes, and requires authorization for certain uses and disclosure of that information.

Definition of Psychotherapy notes 45 CFR Section 164.501 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-501.pdf: Psychotherapy notes means notes recorded (in any medium) by a health care provider who is a mental health professional documenting or analyzing the contents of conversation during a private counseling session or a group, joint, or family counseling session and that are separated from the rest of the individual's medical record. Psychotherapy notes excludes medication prescription and monitoring, counseling session start and stop times, the modalities and frequencies of treatment furnished, results of clinical tests, and any summary of the following items: Diagnosis, functional status, the treatment plan, symptoms, prognosis, and progress to date.

See Section 164.508 Uses and disclosures for which an authorization is required. (2)Authorization required: Psychotherapy notes https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf: Notwithstanding any provision of this subpart, other than the transition provisions in Section 164.532, a covered entity must obtain an authorization for any use or disclosure of psychotherapy notes, except: (i) To carry out the following treatment, payment, or health care operations: (A) Use by the originator of the psychotherapy notes for treatment; (B) Use or disclosure by the covered entity for its own training programs in which students, trainees, or practitioners in mental health learn under supervision to practice or improve their skills in group, joint, family, or individual counseling; or (C) Use or disclosure by the covered entity to defend itself in a legal action or other proceeding brought by the individual; and (ii) A use or disclosure that is required by Section 164.502(a)(2)(ii) or permitted by Section 164.512(a); Section 164.512(d) with respect to the oversight of the originator of the psychotherapy notes; Section 164.512(g)(1); Section 164.512(j)(1)(i).

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by HIPAA 45 CFR 164.508 (2) Authorization required: Psychotherapy notes https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf , use "HIPAAPsyNotes" as the security label policy code.

Since information governed by a HIPAA 45 CFR 164.508 (2) has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "R" (restricted).

A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule 45 CFR Section 164.524 Access of individuals to protected health information https://www.govinfo.gov/app/details/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-524, which stipulates that an individual has a right of access to inspect and obtain a copy of protected health information about the individual in a designated record set, for as long as the protected health information is maintained in the designated record set with exceptions stipulated in HIPAA Privacy Rule Section 164.524. Exceptions include psychotherapy notes and information compiled in reasonable anticipation of, or for use in, a civil, criminal, or administrative action or proceeding.

If an individual's request for access directs the covered entity to transmit the copy of protected health information directly to another person designated by the individual, the covered entity must provide the copy to the person designated by the individual. The individual's request must be in writing, signed by the individual, and clearly identify the designated person and where to send the copy of protected health information.

For discussion on extent of right, grounds for denial, and documentation requirements see: HHS Individuals' Right under HIPAA to Access their Health Information 45 CFR Section 164.524 https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/privacy/guidance/access/index.html and HHS FAQ on Right of Access vs. HIPAA Authorization https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/2041/why-depend-on-the-individuals-right/index.html

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed under 45 CFR Section 164.5224 use "HIPAAROA" as the security label policy code.

Information disclosed under a HIPAA 42 CFR Section 164.524 no longer has the level of confidentiality protection afforded under the 45 CFR Section 164.506 - Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-508.pdf, which is considered the "norm", assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "M" (moderate), which may be protected under other laws such as the Federal Trade Commission privacy and security regulations.

A code representing 45 CFR 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information, which is a US Federal law stipulating the privacy rights of an individual to restrict disclosure of information related to health care items or services for which the individual pays out of pocket in full to a health plan or payer.

See 45 CFR 164.522 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf. (vi) A covered entity must agree to the request of an individual to restrict disclosure of protected health information about the individual to a health plan if: (A) The disclosure is for the purpose of carrying out payment or health care operations and is not otherwise required by law; and (B) The protected health information pertains solely to a health care item or service for which the individual, or person other than the health plan on behalf of the individual, has paid the covered entity in full.

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to HIPAA governed information. In this case, the collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by HIPAA 45 CFR 164.522 https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf use "HIPAASelfPay" as the security label policy code.

Since information governed by a HIPAA 45 CFR 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "R" (restricted).

A code representing Title 38 Section 7332, which is a US Federal law stipulating the privacy rights of veterans diagnosed and treated for substance use disorders, infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, or sickle cell anemia.

https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/granule/USCODE-2011-title38/USCODE-2011-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332/content-detail.html . (1) Records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment of any patient or subject which are maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity (including education, training, treatment, rehabilitation, or research) relating to drug abuse, alcoholism or alcohol abuse, infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, or sickle cell anemia which is carried out by or for the Department under this title shall, except as provided in subsections (e) and (f), be confidential, and (section 5701 of this title to the contrary notwithstanding) such records may be disclosed only for the purposes and under the circumstances expressly authorized under subsection (b). (2) Paragraph (1) prohibits the disclosure to any person or entity other than the patient or subject concerned of the fact that a special written consent is required in order for such records to be disclosed. (b) (1) The content of any record referred to in subsection (a) may be disclosed by the Secretary in accordance with the prior written consent of the patient or subject with respect to whom such record is maintained, but only to such extent, under such circumstances, and for such purposes as may be allowed in regulations prescribed by the Secretary. (2) Whether or not any patient or subject, with respect to whom any given record referred to in subsection (a) is maintained, gives written consent, the content of such record may be disclosed by the Secretary as follows: (A) To medical personnel to the extent necessary to meet a bona fide medical emergency. (B) To qualified personnel for the purpose of conducting scientific research, management audits, financial audits, or program evaluation, but such personnel may not identify, directly or indirectly, any individual patient or subject in any report of such research, audit, or evaluation, or otherwise disclose patient or subject identities in any manner. (C) (i) In the case of any record which is maintained in connection with the performance of any program or activity relating to infection with the human immunodeficiency virus, to a Federal, State, or local public-health authority charged under Federal or State law with the protection of the public health, and to which Federal or State law requires disclosure of such record, if a qualified representative of such authority has made a written request that such record be provided as required pursuant to such law for a purpose authorized by such law. (ii) A person to whom a record is disclosed under this paragraph may not redisclose or use such record for a purpose other than that for which the disclosure was made. (D) If authorized by an appropriate order of a court of competent jurisdiction granted after application showing good cause therefor. In assessing good cause the court shall weigh the public interest and the need for disclosure against the injury to the patient or subject, to the physician-patient relationship, and to the treatment services. Upon the granting of such order, the court, in determining the extent to which any disclosure of all or any part of any record is necessary, shall impose appropriate safeguards against unauthorized disclosure. (E) To an entity described in paragraph (1)(B) of section 5701(k) of this title, but only to the extent authorized by such section. (F) (i) To a representative of a patient who lacks decision-making capacity, when a practitioner deems the content of the given record necessary for that representative to make an informed decision regarding the patient's treatment. (ii) In this subparagraph, the term "representative" means an individual, organization, or other body authorized under section 7331 of this title and its implementing regulations to give informed consent on behalf of a patient who lacks decision-making capacity. (G) To a State controlled substance monitoring program, including a program approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under section 399O of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 280g-3), to the extent necessary to prevent misuse and diversion of prescription medicines. (H) (i) To a non-Department entity (including private entities and other Federal agencies) for purposes of providing health care, including hospital care, medical services, and extended care services, to Veterans or performing other health care-related activities or functions. (ii) An entity to which a record is disclosed under this subparagraph may not disclose or use such record for a purpose other than that for which the disclosure was made or as permitted by law. (I) To a third party in order to recover or collect reasonable charges for care furnished to, or paid on behalf of, a Veteran in connection with a non-service connected disability as permitted by section 1729 of this title or for a condition for which recovery is authorized or with respect to which the United States is deemed to be a third party beneficiary under the Act entitled 'An Act to provide for the recovery from tortiously liable third persons of the cost of hospital and medical care and treatment furnished by the United States' (Public Law 87-693; 42 U.S.C. 2651 et seq.; commonly known as the 'Federal Medical Care Recovery Act').

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 38 U.S. Code Section 7332 - Confidentiality of certain medical records https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/granule/USCODE-2011-title38/USCODE-2011-title38-partV-chap73-subchapIII-sec7332/content-detail.html use "Title38Section7332" as the security label policy code.

Since information governed by a Title 38 Section 7332 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "R" (restricted).

Code retired in December 2019 and replaced by code HIPAAConsent. Originally entered with copy/paste error in code value.

A code representing U.S. Public Law 104-191 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule (45 CFR Section 164.522), which stipulates the process by which a covered entity seeks agreement from an individual regarding how it will use and disclose the individual's protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations is termed a "consent." The Privacy Rule permits, but does not require, a covered entity to voluntarily obtain patient consent for uses and disclosures of protected health information for treatment, payment, and health care operations. Covered entities that do so have complete discretion to design a process that best suits their needs. From https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/faq/264/what-is-the-difference-between-consent-and-authorization/index.html. The provisions relating to consent are largely contained in Section 164.522 Rights to request privacy protection for protected health information https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-522.pdf.

Usage Note: Used to indicate the legal authority for assigning security labels to governed information. In this case, where collection, access, use, or disclosure of healthcare information is governed by 45 CFR Section 164.522 use "HIPAAConsent" as the security label policy code.

Since information governed by a 45 CFR Section 164.522 has a level of confidentiality protection that is more stringent than the normal level of protection under HIPAA 45 CFR Section 164.506 Uses and disclosures to carry out treatment, payment, or health care operations https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/CFR-2017-title45-vol1/pdf/CFR-2017-title45-vol1-sec164-506.pdf, assign the HL7 Confidentiality code "R" (restricted).

A mandate, obligation, requirement, rule, or expectation characterizing the value or importance of a resource and may include its vulnerability. (Based on ISO7498-2:1989. Note: The vulnerability of personally identifiable sensitive information may be based on concerns that the unauthorized disclosure may result in social stigmatization or discrimination.) Description: Types of Sensitivity policy that apply to Acts or Roles. A sensitivity policy is adopted by an enterprise or group of enterprises (a 'policy domain') through a formal data use agreement that stipulates the value, importance, and vulnerability of information. A sensitivity code representing a sensitivity policy may be associated with criteria such as categories of information or sets of information identifiers (e.g., a value set of clinical codes or branch in a code system hierarchy). These criteria may in turn be used for the Policy Decision Point in a Security Engine. A sensitivity code may be used to set the confidentiality code used on information about Acts and Roles to trigger the security mechanisms required to control how security principals (i.e., a person, a machine, a software application) may act on the information (e.g., collection, access, use, or disclosure). Sensitivity codes are never assigned to the transport or business envelope containing patient specific information being exchanged outside of a policy domain as this would disclose the information intended to be protected by the policy. When sensitive information is exchanged with others outside of a policy domain, the confidentiality code on the transport or business envelope conveys the receiver's responsibilities and indicates the how the information is to be safeguarded without unauthorized disclosure of the sensitive information. This ensures that sensitive information is treated by receivers as the sender intends, accomplishing interoperability without point to point negotiations.

Usage Note: Sensitivity codes are not useful for interoperability outside of a policy domain because sensitivity policies are typically localized and vary drastically across policy domains even for the same information category because of differing organizational business rules, security policies, and jurisdictional requirements. For example, an employee's sensitivity code would make little sense for use outside of a policy domain. 'Taboo' would rarely be useful outside of a policy domain unless there are jurisdictional requirements requiring that a provider disclose sensitive information to a patient directly. Sensitivity codes may be more appropriate in a legacy system's Master Files in order to notify those who access a patient's orders and observations about the sensitivity policies that apply. Newer systems may have a security engine that uses a sensitivity policy's criteria directly. The specializable InformationSensitivityPolicy Act.code may be useful in some scenarios if used in combination with a sensitivity identifier and/or Act.title.

Types of sensitivity policies that apply to Acts. Act.confidentialityCode is defined in the RIM as "constraints around appropriate disclosure of information about this Act, regardless of mood."

Usage Note: ActSensitivity codes are used to bind information to an Act.confidentialityCode according to local sensitivity policy so that those confidentiality codes can then govern its handling across enterprises. Internally to a policy domain, however, local policies guide the access control system on how end users in that policy domain are able to use information tagged with these sensitivity values.

Policy for handling alcohol or drug-abuse information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to alcohol or drug-abuse information that is deemed sensitive.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling genetic disease information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to genetic disease information that is deemed sensitive.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling HIV or AIDS information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to HIV or AIDS information that is deemed sensitive.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling information related to sexual assault or repeated, threatening sexual harassment that occurred while the patient was in the military, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.

Access control concerns for military sexual trauma is based on the patient being subject to control by a higher ranking military perpetrator and/or censure by others within the military unit. Due to the relatively unfettered access to healthcare information by higher ranking military personnel and those who have command over the patient, there is a need to sequester this information outside of the typical controls on access to military health records.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling information about an individual's current or past pregnancy status, deemed sensitive by the individual or by policy, which may be afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note:

Information about a patient's current or past pregnancy status may be considered sensitive in circumstances in which that status could result in discrimination or stigmatization.

Policy for handling sickle cell disease information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols are based on organizational policies related to sickle cell disease information, which is deemed sensitive.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then the Act valued with this ActCode should be associated with an Act valued with any applicable laws from the ActPrivacyLaw code system.

Policy for handling sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexual assault, abuse, or domestic violence information that is deemed sensitive.

SDV code covers violence perpetrated by related and non-related persons. This code should be specific to physical and mental trauma caused by a related person only. The access control concerns are keeping the patient safe from the perpetrator who may have an abusive psychological control over the patient, may be stalking the patient, or may try to manipulate care givers into allowing the perpetrator to make contact with the patient. The definition needs to be clarified.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling sexuality and reproductive health information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexuality and reproductive health information that is deemed sensitive.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling information deemed specially protected by law or policy including substance abuse, substance use, psychiatric, mental health, behavioral health, and cognitive disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling information related to behavioral and emotional disturbances affecting social adjustment and physical health, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling information related to cognitive disability disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which are afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.

Examples may include dementia, traumatic brain injury, attention deficit, hearing and visual disability such as dyslexia and other disorders and related conditions which impair learning and self-sufficiency. However, the cognitive disabilities to which this term may apply versus other behavioral health categories varies by jurisdiction and organizational policy in part due to overlap with other behavioral health conditions. Implementers should constrain to those diagnoses applicable in the domain in which this code is used.

Policy for handling information related to developmental disability disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.

A diverse group of chronic conditions that are due to mental or physical impairments impacting activities of daily living, self-care, language acuity, learning, mobility, independent living and economic self-sufficiency. Examples may include Down syndrome and Autism spectrum. However, the developmental disabilities to which this term applies versus other behavioral health categories varies by jurisdiction and organizational policy in part due to overlap with other behavioral health conditions. Implementers should constrain to those diagnoses applicable in the domain in which this code is used.

Policy for handling information related to emotional disturbance disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.

Typical used to characterize behavioral and mental health issues of adolescents where the disorder may be temporarily diagnosed in order to avoid the potential and unnecessary stigmatizing diagnoses of disorder long term.

Policy for handling information related to psychological disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality. Mental health information may be deemed specifically sensitive and distinct from physical health, substance use disorders, and behavioral disabilities and disorders in some jurisdictions.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling psychiatry psychiatric disorder information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling psychotherapy note information, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note: In some jurisdiction, disclosure of psychotherapy notes requires patient consent.

If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law rather than or in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling information related to alcohol or drug use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling information related to alcohol use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling information related to opioid use disorders and conditions caused by these disorders, which is afforded heightened confidentiality.

Usage Note: If there is a jurisdictional mandate, then use the applicable ActPrivacyLaw code system, and specify the law in addition to this more generic code.

Policy for handling sexually transmitted disease information, which will be afforded heightened confidentiality. Information handling protocols based on organizational policies related to sexually transmitted disease information that is deemed sensitive.